The TRVE history of the Flood...

Okay, so you say that there was no eruption. Fine.But you want to compare the fountains of the deep to the black smokers springs at the mid-ocean ridges, yes?Well, those are not exactly causing a flood right now, are they? What do you suppose the would look like if they were actually causing a rise in sea level on the scale of your biblical flood?And regardless of the intensity, such fountains should leave some kind of evidence of where they are/were. Where is that and how do they look different from the modern springs?By the way, you do know where the water that 'erupts' from the black smokers comes from, do you not?

Hi ringo Why does a author use any word?Why do you use any words?Are you saying you use words just to use words and not convey a specific meaning. Then why did he use a word that is used of watercourses dividing land rather than one which he knew and used to mean scatter the people?Is you comprehension that bad or you just trying to be disgustingly objectionable? Did you even read the post you are answering? Message 1205 Genesis 10:25 And unto Eber were born two sons: the name of one was Peleg; for in his days was the earth divided; and his brother's name was Joktan.In Genesis 10 25 the Hebrew word פלג is translated divided. It means divide or split water . It is used of a land mass being divided by water in Job 38,25. Why would it mean anything else here. It does not mean the same as the Hebrew word in verse 32.If the author wanted to refer to the people being divided why didn't he use the same word in verse 25? Did he forget which word to use that quick?Genesis 10:31 These are the sons of Shem, after their families, after their tongues, in their lands, after their nations.10:32 These are the families of the sons of Noah, after their generations, in their nations: and by these were the nations divided in the earth after the flood.In verse 32 the Hebrew word חלק פרד is translated divided. This word means: 1.to separate, divide.Do those 2 words look like they are the same word?
Do they have the same meaning?
Why did the author choose the one he did in verse 25? I think he used it because it had something to do with water dividing land.Edited by ICANT, : To strikethrough wrong word used and insert correct word.

There can be a lot of reasons. I've been known to change a word on this forum just to avoid a line break.Words are flexible. Meanings change. It's ridiculous to pretend that you can know exactly what somebody meant thousands of years ago because of one word. Why did he talk about dividing nations instead of dividing land? That's the context. The context is more important than your attempts at Hebrew scholarship. You're shooting yourself in the foot. In English, divide and separate can be used more-or-less interchangeably. Why can two different Hebrew words not be used for the same concept?Remember that the ONLY context for both words is the division/separation of the nations after the Tower of Babel. One reference in Job does not mean that one word can ONLY mean separation of water. What you think doesn't matter. The division of the earth in Genesis has nothing to do with Pangea. Pangea separated long before there was any civilization.

lolWe have evidence but what we don't have is any evidence that supports any of your absurdities.ICANT, your fantasy is simply ridiculous; not even laughable, just silly.

But to creationists years are like rubber bands--stretch them any old which way to make things come out right.Pangaea breaking up at 175 million years before humans were around? No problem.Some creationists even put the flood at the P-T boundary, over 250 million years ago.

hi edge, No I say they are like the smokers. I would envision a huge body of water trapped in a carven and that being released into the ocean just the large spring just off the coast of Hawaii and the one off the coast of Jacksonville Fl. They are fed by the aquifer, the ones that opened would have been trapped just as oil is trapped in the ground and would have been under great pressure. Depending of the size of the faucet God installed (pun intended) would determine how the water rushed out.But we have not yet determined how much water we needed to accomplish the covering of the land mass that existed in Genesis chapter 7.Neither do we know how many of the fountains of the deep there was that opened up. That would determine how much water was available.The water rises at the rate of about 9 feet per hr at the Bay of Fundy without tearing everything apart. In fact from day to day you will not notice any change.But whatever depth need there would be 40 24 hr days to accomplish the task. At 24 hours a day times 9 feet per hour times 40 days we would have 8,640 feet of water.If I remember correctly JonF said there was about enough water available to cover the earth with 8,856 feet of water if the earth was a perfect sphere. Why would you expect to find any evidence of such fountains when the dry land mass was all in one place. If you did what would it look like. As far as I know the Cayman trench could be the result of a lot of water being released into the ocean and then later the overburden collapsing and ending up 2 miles deep. Maybe that is what it would look like. Sure, out of the ocean.God Bless,

Hi ringo, Then show me where my Hebrew words are incorrect and do not mean exactly what I said they mean.God Bless,

hi jar, Then pull that mouse out of your pocket and you and him present the evidence.You have zero evidence for what happened billions of years ago.All that is available to you is pipe dreams and assumptions.But you are welcome to present what you have. My pipe dreams are no more ridiculous than yours.God Bless,

You're discounting flavor text and artistic license.People use words in ways that do not conform to their exact literal meaning.

So, how are they different? So, what happens to those caverns? Where are they? What is your evidence for such caverns filled with water under great pressure?Do you know where the water comes from at these springs? If they are large, you should be able to show us one. Where is it? Not important. It's a huge amount.But hey, it's your model. Tell us. Well, then, you have a lot of work to do. So, in a day, we wouldn't notice sea level rising over 200 feet? And? Show us a time in the history of the earth when it was a smooth and perfect sphere. Not according to seismic profiles.C'mon, give us something concrete. This is your theory, support it.

AHHH whiplash!Why wouldn't all the stuff fall off when God whipped the continents thousands of miles? I can't keep the coffee cup on the roof of my car in my driveway.The other part that I really want to know is WHY? He goes to the effort to nag Noah and his family into spending 100 years building the ark, sends the flood with all that effort, and then decides to just whip the continents across the planet. He could have just squished all the evil people and kept the animals.

ICANT, we've had the discussion before. You have never been able to show that divide could not apply to separating folks rather than separating dirt. All you have been able to show is your own stubbornness on the issue.Further, your past discussions with arachno-guy have left the impression that you are not to be taken as an unquestioned expert on Hebrew. Beyond that, I know there is no semantic position that you won't take in lieu of providing evidence for your own translation. Nobody needs to take anything you say seriously until you provide some support for your own offerings. Your own personal word does not cut it.

No magic...What word would you use instead for moving a continent at greater than the speed of light... supernatural? Unearthly?The term I would use is "made up without any Biblical support".Edited by NoNukes, : No reason given.Edited by NoNukes, : No reason given.

Just what else did the Bible author get wrong?In fact, if the author was not omniscient, how would he know anything about the Flood? Or about creation. How far do you want to go with this?I'll take it one step further. If the writer was fallible, then why do you lean on word choice the way you do. Maybe the whole thing is just wrong.Edited by NoNukes, : No reason given.

In the days of Peleg
Ancient documents are consistent with the total accuracy of the Bible’s chronology.
by Larry Pierce

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Four generations after Noah, Genesis 10:25 records the birth of Peleg (meaning division) ‘for in his days was the earth divided’. Some suggest the continents of the earth were divided at this time. However, this seems unlikely, as such a process would have had to occur within a very confined time period. The resultant geological violence would be overwhelmingly catastrophiclike another Noahic Flood all over again. Any continental separation thus likely occurred during the Flood.

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quote:

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After Alexander the Great had defeated Darius at Gaugmela near Arbela, he journeyed to Babylon. Here he received 1903 years of astronomical observations from the Chaldeans, which they claimed dated back to the founding of Babylon. If this was so, then that would place the founding of Babylon in 2234 BC, or about thirteen years after the birth of Peleg.

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There's also a good discussion hereThere might well have been mountains before the flood but most of today's mountains would be post flood. The entire landscape would have been terraformed during the flood.