Jehovas Witness Bible, any exclusive contradictions?

I'm not a JW, but what you say here is almost all inaccurate. There is no suffix to indicate the indefinite article. The indefinite article in Greek is chosen at times just because there is no definite article given. Noun endings indicate case (nominative, genitive, accusative, dative), not the presence of an indefinite article.I only took one year of Greek, but I have read numerous analyses of John 1:1 by Greek scholars of all persuasions. "The Word was a god" is not the preferred translation, but neither is "The Word was God." In normal situations, the JW translation would be correct. However, the format of those words, say Protestant scholars, indicates that the word "God" is being used similar to an adjective so that "The Word was divine" would be the best translation. "The Word was God" is simply inaccurate, as the absence of a definite article really does suggest that "a god" ought to be used in most situations.Again, that's from Protestant scholars and from my first year Greek teacher, who was an Assembly of God pastor.Further, I just looked at a copy of the Textus Receptus (the text on which the KJV and NKJV is based) and it has pros ton theon. "ton" is the accusative form of the definite article. In other words, it does say "with the God" not just "with God." Same with Jn 1:2.

In context of history, this really isn't difficult. John obviously uses a lot of gnostic terminology in John 1. Some say that's because it was originally a gnostic Gospel, but I'd be prone to agreeing with Irenaeus that it was purposely written to refute gnosticism and say that Light, Word, Man, Christ, Life, etc. are not separate "aeons," but Jesus is all those things.Either way, he is clearly using typical Greek terminology. The Gospel was late, and it was written in Greek.The Word, then, is tied to thought, reason, and mind. John is calling Christ the Word, and everyone who used that Gospel for the next three centuries tied "the Word" to Wisdom in Proverbs 8 (as you hinted at).The early churches (the "orthodox" non-gnostic one) took "the Word" quite literally and say that the Word (or Reason or Wisdom) that was inside of God in the beginning, he was able to give birth to in some way we can't understand. They regularly quote Ps 45:1 (LXX) "my heart has emitted a good word," as a description of the birth of the Word in the beginning as separate from the Father.Historians call this "Word theology" and attribute this to the apologists, but I don't understand why. I've read most of the pre-Nicene writings and Nicene writings, and no one says anything against this Word theology and many of them espouse it. It was basically agreed to at Nicea, though it was changed in the debates afterward.

Their New World Translation is not different enough from other Bibles to produce unique contradictions.Ask them, however, to explain Matt 27:52 & 53. They have an article on that which one of them gave me. It's hilarious. They don't want to admit that passage says that people rose from the dead, when it obviously does.Another one that makes them struggle is Zech 2:10-12, because it has Jehovah saying that Jehovah sent him, even in their translation.I don't think the Witnesses are worse than any other sect. At least they encourage their members to live holy, and they are very brave in persecution. They're pretty close-minded, though, so that even when they're obviously wrong (like in the Matt 27 passage) they'll stick to their guns no matter how silly they look doing so.On the other hand I had a great talk with one of their elders once, because he'd never heard the early church view of the Trinity (see my next post, which is to you). He got very open, and he let me talk to him for over half an hour, asking questions rather than just spouting their views to me. It's too bad that they're so closed, because if they would have let him, he and I could have been good friends.Can I invite you to look at Error 404 (Not Found)!!1? That's where I'm from. I actually live in a Christian village.

You won't find anything as direct as you want, possibly. However...1 Cor 8:6 says "Though there be many gods and many lords, yet for us there is but one God, the Father...and one Lord, Jesus Christ."Matt 28:19 says to baptize in the name of the Father, Son, and Holy Spirit. Some people think that's a later addition, and it does seem strange there, especially considering that everyone baptizes just in the name of Jesus in the Book of Acts.1 Jn 5:7 mentions the Father, Word, and Holy Spirit, but there's no doubt that is a much, much later addition.There's also a blessing in one of Paul's letters that mentions all three. I don't remember where it is, and I don't know what to search for to find it.1 Cor 8:6 and John 1:1 are good ones, though. There's no direct mention or explanation of the Trinity doctrine, and verses like 1 Cor 15:27,28 all help round out the idea.Tertullian wrote a treatise around AD 200 called "Against Praxeas" that goes into an explanation of the Trinity doctrine. His view is what you'll find in all the writings of the 2nd and early 3rd century; they're very consistent on the subject. Tertullian gets called "the father of the Trinity," because supposedly he was the first person to use the word. I think that's only true because he spoke Latin, though. Either Athenagoras or Theophilus used a Greek word that got translated "triad" about three decades earlier.

It's not a blatant mistranslation. See my post 32. I don't think we know anything about what Christians in the 1st century did except what is in Acts.I've heard about a couple things that people argue have been changed on purpose in the the books that are in the Bible, but this really isn't widespread. The gnostics simply used different books (with few exceptions), and the rather rare offshoots of "orthodox" Christianity from the 2nd and 3rd centuries used exactly the same Bible as the orthodox. Where the gnostics used the same books as the orthodox, their very figurative interpretation of those books made changing them unnecessary (except Marcion, who for some reason like Paul's letters and changed both them and the Gospel of Luke).

Well, they do, actually. They recognize one Almighty God and one Mighty God.I didn't go look that up to verify that somewhere, but that's how they explained it to me. I've talked to them a lot, though it's been a long time since I talked to them. The Word was like God (not like a god) is very close to how the passage was explained to me in books and by my Greek teacher. "The Word has the character and nature of God" is the most common "exact" translation I heard offered.Mind you, I am not a Greek scholar, but I can tell you that if you go read a Greek scholar's work, that is what it will say. "The Word has the character and nature of God" and the "the Word is like God" are pretty similar, in my opinion. I was wondering whether to mention this. This is commented on by a couple of early and quite orthodox Christians, Justin & Tertullian. Justin is considered a little extreme in his terminology, but I can tell you from reading that his general theology on the Word is pretty much the same as all the other 2nd century fathers.Justin told Trypho, a Jew that he was arguing with, that there is one Unbegotten God and one begotten God. I don't think that's typical terminology for the 2nd century fathers, but none of them are around to ask. It fits their theology, though.Tertullian, interestingly enough, since he is "the father of the Trinity," said "If you accuse us of believing in two Gods, of course we do. If you can do math, then you ought to be able to figure out that the Word was with God--one God--and the Word was God--two Gods."He goes on to argue that there is no separation of divinity. The Word is made from the substance of God, which cannot be divided, so there is only one divinity, but there are two persons, so being accused of having two Gods is not unscriptural.That's all in Against Praxeas ch. 13. In ch. 3 he argues that there is only one monarchy (lit., one rule). And he defends himself against the charge of monotheism in that way, just as he does in Against Marcion, book 1, ch. 3. However, here in ch. 13, he produces numerous passages that have 2 Gods in them, and even points out that the Scripture says "ye are gods," and says if the Scripture can refer to humans as gods if they are made sons of God through faith, then surely the only-begotten Son can be called God, too.I don't know how pertinent any of that is to the JW's, but it seemed interesting in context of a discussion of John 1:1.

Yes, I do agree. They address monotheism here. Their answer is to say, "Clearly, although Jesus is mighty in power and divine in nature, the Bible does not portray him as an object of worship." They have more on who Jesus is here. Well, keep in mind that I was speaking for Tertullian and only quoting part of what he said. Having read Tertullian a lot, I'm pretty sure he'd object (were he still alive) to being characterized this way. You might have to read him directly, and not go by my paraphrase. Speaking for myself, not Tertullian, I have to ask, why not? If the Word was with God, and the Word has the character and nature of God, and is called God in several places, how is there not two Gods?If it helps any, I personally believe that there is one God, the Father, but that God has a Son, who is divine by nature of being God's Son. God plus his Son equals two for me, just like it did for Justin, who described an unbegotten and a begotten God. That, to me, is how you can have Yahweh (or Jehovah if someone prefers) can be sending Yahweh in Zech 2:8-11. yep. You lost me. What does this mean?

The early church didn't mind switching between "begotten" and "created," so they didn't see begotten as meaning uncreated. They universally applied Prov 8:22 to Christ, and the universally read it as "The Lord created me the beginning of his works."So begotten as in created was the "orthodox" doctrine of the church for almost 300 years until Arius showed up. Then they wanted to stop using the word "created" because of the way Arius applied it.Until then, though, no one fretted over using created, because to them the Scriptures used it.

I agree it is good to let each author speak for himself. I have a couple disagreements, though.Letting each book speak for itself does not explain why Hell suddenly pops up with Jesus. Jesus' description of hell is pulled right out of the Book of Enoch. I don't know the history that led to the Book of Enoch, but it is true that you won't find a description of hell like that in the Old Testament.And Luther's wanting to cut out the Book of James had to do with Luther's bizarre theology, which contradicts most of Paul, too. The early church never even addressed difficulties reconciling James & Paul, because their theology, mostly influenced by Paul himself, had no difficulties with the Book of James.I realize James wasn't Scripture to all the early, orthodox churches, but those who did have it did not find the contradictions that ONLY post-Luther believers find. Luther invented those problems.I don't agree on the Matthew-Paul thing, either, being quite confident that Paul's letters and Matthew's Gospel were produced by the same churches, who knew and agreed with each other, but I can at least understand why you say what you said. The James-Paul thing irritates me, though, because it's not a James-Paul thing, it's only a James-Luther thing.