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Author Topic:   basic reading of genesis 1:1
ICANT
Member
Posts: 6769
From: SSC
Joined: 03-12-2007
Member Rating: 1.6


Message 300 of 312 (612910)
04-20-2011 12:09 AM
Reply to: Message 298 by arachnophilia
04-13-2011 5:42 PM


Re:
Hi arach,
arachnophilia writes:
there is a verb פנה. notice the three letter root. this is important. there is also a noun, פנים. this noun does not occur in the singular form, which would be identical to the verb. unless verb is qal 3mp, that's how you tell them apart. i realize that since you routinely mix up letters, making a distinction based on a single letter is going to be difficult. but please try.
OK I will try real hard.
פנים. is a noun derived from the root word פנה. which is a verb.
In Genesis 1:2 you have על־פני two times and both times followed by a noun.
על is a preposition "upon".
פני is a noun plural masculine construct.
מים is a ms3 Pual perfect verb.
שמים is a noun masculine from an unused root.
אלהים is a plural noun masculine from the root אלוה which is noun masculine singular.
arachnophilia writes:
adding a prepositional prefix, such as ל, to a construct noun turn it into a preposition.
I ask again, where is that rule given in a textbook?
You are the only one I can find that makes such an assertion.
arachnophilia writes:
You do not make an infinitive construct by placing a prefix on a noun and neither do you create a preposition out of a noun by placing a prefix on the noun.
If you disagree give me the page I can find the rule that a prefix on a noun turns the noun into a perposition.
no. you've been given it time and time again.
You keep asserting you have presented evidence but I have seen none. Just give me the page number it is on and I will find it myself.
arachnophilia writes:
But the textbook goes on to say "the most frequent use of the infinitive construct is with prepositions especially ב, כ and ל".
So without a prefix what constitutes a infinitive?

grammatical context!

and verb form.
Grammatical context when one noun follows another noun the first is said to be in the construct.
I find no such rule for verbs.
I do find when a verb has a preposition whether it is a inseperable or stand alone the verb is an infinitive.
I don't find where the verb is an infinitive without the preposition.
arachnophilia writes:
It doesn't make any difference where it came from the first noun is in the construct to the following noun in the absolute.
You still have not produced the rule that a prefix turns a noun into a perposition. Until then it is a noun with a prefix.
i have, but you're a crank. you'll have to read the thread again, and determine what you've somehow responded to, but also missed.
I can't find the page number anywhere that has recorded on it that a prefix turns a noun into a preposition.
I do know that a preposition directly infront of or on a noun turns the noun into a prepositional phrase.
That is found on page 68 of an introduction to Biblical Hebrew Syntax by Bruce K. Waltke.
arachnophilia writes:
okay, so BDB, gesenius, strong, your crank sources, and creationist apologetic websites are all wrong.
The jury is still out as to whether BDB, Gesenius is wrong. I have found a couple of textbooks from the early 1800's that put forth that const. and abs. verbs was considered the same as perfect and imperfect. So after I have studied it much more and searched for more information I will address the issue again, until then I still have questions as to what they believed const. and abs to be.
arachnophilia writes:
If you take the ל from לפני you have פני which is a verb.
no, it's not. see above. פני and פנה are not the same word. one is spelled with a yud and the other with a hey. this is the difference between "ICANT" and "UCANT". do you understand how different letters make different words, or is this a problem for you too?
So if I take the ל from לפני I will have פנה could you explain how that is possible?
achrachnophilia writes:
But you will find nowhere בראשית is listed as a preposition.
and you will find nowhere that פנים is listed as a preposition. except that it is. just like "top" is nowhere listed as a preposition, yet "on top of" is a prepositional phrase. adding a few latters changes things.
And בראשית is a noun with a prefix that constitutes a Prepositional phrase. But it does not turn the noun into a preposition.
Since the definite article would be absorbed in the prefix the translation would be "In the beginning".
The prepositional phrase is the preposition ב and its object ראשית. page 68
arachnophilia writes:
ראשונה is not a number. אחד is a number.
ראשונה is first which is the Hebrew ordinal number.
אחד is the cardinal number 1.
arachnophilia writes:
that's not an assertion. look it up. your choice of lexicon this time, since gesenius and BDB already proved you wrong. oh, but i'm sure you'll find some cranky know-nothing source that will vindicate you, like that shitty piece of software you've been using. try to be a real reputable source, this time.
Sure it's an assertion to prove the point you are trying to prove.
It is true that all three verses, Genesis 2:4, 5:1 and 5:2 all have ביום
They all have: ב which is a prefix meaning in, on, and with.
They all have יום a noun singular, meaning day.
Since the definite article would be absorbed in the prefix you have a prepositional phrase, "In the day", in all three. So if that is what you are asserting you are correct.
arachnophilia writes:
Could you present the rule from a textbook that says that the beit prefix on a noun such as day turns that noun into a preposition.
i have, but you're a crank, and you don't like accepting evidence.
I can't find the page that makes such a statement. That means you haven't presented one yet.
I do know that a preposition directly infront of or on a noun turns the noun into a prepositional phrase.
That is found on page 68 of an introduction to Biblical Hebrew Syntax by Bruce K. Waltke.
God Bless,

"John 5:39 (KJS) Search the scriptures; for in them ye think ye have eternal life: and they are they which testify of me."

This message is a reply to:
 Message 298 by arachnophilia, posted 04-13-2011 5:42 PM arachnophilia has replied

Replies to this message:
 Message 301 by arachnophilia, posted 04-20-2011 1:42 AM ICANT has replied

  
ICANT
Member
Posts: 6769
From: SSC
Joined: 03-12-2007
Member Rating: 1.6


Message 302 of 312 (612936)
04-20-2011 11:10 AM
Reply to: Message 301 by arachnophilia
04-20-2011 1:42 AM


Re Lexicons
Hi arach,
arachnophilia writes:
it's a noun. please stop looking things up in lexicons. you can't even do it correctly. people who can read never have these difficulties.
With the vowel pointings that I searched it came up ms3 pual verb and actually past tense.
מַיֵּם is listed as Piel infinitive tense infinitive noun.
מַיֵּם is also listed as sm Piel imperfect tense.
מֻיֵּם is listed as sm3 Pual past tense.
מִיֵּם is listed as sm3 Piel past tense.
So as you can see they are in the process of changing the Biblical Hebrew again.
You can find the program Here. You can download it and use it for 7 days before it will expire without purchasing it.
It has past, present, future, infinitive, and imperfect tense.
As far as my lexicons go:
BDB has it a noun, dual. waters
GHCLOT noun, singular. water
CHALOT noun, singular. water
arachnophilia writes:
you know very well that "god" is not plural.
I know that אלוה is a noun masculine singular.
I know אלהים is a plural noun masculine.
Maybe one day we can argue why this form translated God is plural.
arachnophilia writes:
look harder. it's no longer worth it to repeat myself so often.
Are you getting tired of making assertions without producing the page that states a prefix on a noun makes it a preposition?
arachnophilia writes:
try harder. there are two whole chapters in that book on infinitives. surely you can glean something from those chapters, including their multitude of examples that lack prefixes
Well I can't find an infinitive example that does not have some type of prefix or suffix.
It is your burden to present one, as it is your assertion, so please do.
arachnophilia writes:
...
I don't understand that comment, could you translate?
arachnophilia writes:
i think you should seriously consider the possibility that you're simply wrong.
I have. That is the reason in the first post concerning what they said, I said I would need to know what they meant by const. and abs..
arachnophilia writes:
see the bit you've quoted.
I looked again and I still do not understand how I can remove ל from לפני and get פנה.
When I remove the ל from לפני I get פני
arachnophilia writes:
...
I don't understand that comment, could you translate?
arachnophilia writes:
Since the definite article would be absorbed in the prefix you have a prepositional phrase, "In the day", in all three. So if that is what you are asserting you are correct.
of
There is no noun following יום to put it in the construct which would justify the 'of'.
So where do you get the 'of' from?
arachnophilia writes:
...
I don't understand that comment, could you translate?
God Bless,

"John 5:39 (KJS) Search the scriptures; for in them ye think ye have eternal life: and they are they which testify of me."

This message is a reply to:
 Message 301 by arachnophilia, posted 04-20-2011 1:42 AM arachnophilia has replied

Replies to this message:
 Message 304 by arachnophilia, posted 04-20-2011 10:40 PM ICANT has replied

  
ICANT
Member
Posts: 6769
From: SSC
Joined: 03-12-2007
Member Rating: 1.6


Message 303 of 312 (612950)
04-20-2011 12:36 PM
Reply to: Message 299 by arachnophilia
04-13-2011 5:47 PM


Re: what thing that is over 1200 years old?
Hi arach,
arachnophilia writes:
i'll be more than happy to, the second you present something that actually is more than 1200 years old.
There are fragraments of the LXX from the 2nd century BC and the 1st century BC. There are two almost complete copies of the LXX from the 4th century AD. The Codex Vaticanus and the Codex Sinaiticus. There is also the Codex Alexandrinus of the 5th century.
The oldest MT text abailable is 950 AD. It seems they destroyed all old text's when they had copied them. Which leaves nothing to compare those available too.
There are also much of the OT in the DSS that are available for study.
The LXX was vilified as a louzy translation until the DSS surfaced and then it was proven that the LXX was a reliable translation.
God Bless,

"John 5:39 (KJS) Search the scriptures; for in them ye think ye have eternal life: and they are they which testify of me."

This message is a reply to:
 Message 299 by arachnophilia, posted 04-13-2011 5:47 PM arachnophilia has replied

Replies to this message:
 Message 305 by arachnophilia, posted 04-20-2011 10:50 PM ICANT has replied

  
ICANT
Member
Posts: 6769
From: SSC
Joined: 03-12-2007
Member Rating: 1.6


Message 306 of 312 (613152)
04-21-2011 11:51 PM
Reply to: Message 305 by arachnophilia
04-20-2011 10:50 PM


Re: what thing that is over 1200 years old?
Hi arach,
arachnophilia writes:
oh, okay, so you can look things up at wikipedia. great.
I don't have to read about them on wikipedia. I have the documents on my computer.
arachnophilia writes:
yes, it's all a giant jewish conspiracy.
I don't know if you would call it a conspiracy. I just know they did not preserve the old copies and the oldest there is is 950 AD.
arachnophilia writes:
you're welcome to start a thread on why you feel the LXX is or is not a good translation in comparison to other sources.
Not enough time.
Gesenius Hebrew Grammar 2nd English Edition uses it a lot.
God Bless,

"John 5:39 (KJS) Search the scriptures; for in them ye think ye have eternal life: and they are they which testify of me."

This message is a reply to:
 Message 305 by arachnophilia, posted 04-20-2011 10:50 PM arachnophilia has replied

Replies to this message:
 Message 309 by arachnophilia, posted 04-25-2011 6:20 PM ICANT has not replied

  
ICANT
Member
Posts: 6769
From: SSC
Joined: 03-12-2007
Member Rating: 1.6


Message 307 of 312 (613260)
04-23-2011 3:20 PM
Reply to: Message 304 by arachnophilia
04-20-2011 10:40 PM


Re: Lexicons
Hi arach,
arachnophilia writes:
that should be your first clue something's very wrong.
Well there are people who are pushing that agenda and they believe they are correct.
arachnophilia writes:
yeah, no. it looks like it's giving stardard vowel pointings to any three letter root, and thus making up words. i'm not aware of any usage of מים as a verb
I don't know if מים is used as a verb. I was just pointing out that there are people with some far out ideas.
You are basing much of your understanding of Biblical Hebrew by what you read that someone said in 1990.
On page 189 in "An Introduction To Biblical Hebrew Syntax" by Waltke it says:
quote:
...and the complex preposition, made up of a preposition + a noun...
This statement does not appear in Gesenius Hebrew Grammar 2nd English Edition.
If you can find a textbook that agrees with Waltke please present it.
arachnophilia writes:
no, you have a crap source. you evidently can't tell the difference between a crap source and a good source, if you're using this nonsense over waltke, or BDB, or anything else, really.
This crap you are referring to will become fact in the future.
If you disagree go back and read the textbooks of the 1500's and see how much they have changed getting us to today.
arachnophilia writes:
you do understand that i actually laughed audibly when i saw that? i wouldn't dream of paying for that crap.
You don't have to pay for it if someone is discarding it and gives it to you .
arachnophilia writes:
which, for biblical hebrew at least, makes it wrong.
So if someone adds tenses to Biblical Hebrew they are wrong.
An introduction to Biblical Hebrew Syntax by Waltke on page 347 says:
quote:
Biblical Hebrew has no tenses in the strict sense.
On page 580 it says:
quote:
The Semitic languages generally distinguish two categories of non-finite verb forms, the infinitive, which designates the action or situation of the verb and the participle which refers to the actor or patient of the verb.
So they have added two types of verbs to cover things covered by the Hebrew perfect and imperfect verb. To be fair with Waltke he did not invent the infinitive and participle verbs in Biblical Hebrew. He was just repeating what he had learned that was supposed to be fact.
Perfect is completed action. Most refer to this as past but that is not always the case.
Imperfect is incomplete action. Action that is ongoing.
arachnophilia writes:
these sources happen to be correct. the distinction between "dual" and "singular" are moot, of course, as dual nouns are nouns that look plural but act singula
Dual and singular are two different things. Dual is used when talking about things that come in pairs, such as eyes, hands, feet, etc. So they don't just look plural they are more than one and less than three.
arachnophilia writes:
i have argued it already. in fact, as i mentioned above, "dual nouns are nouns that look plural but act singular." when you have a dual noun, and it's the subject of a clause, it's easy to tell if it's singular: the verb takes singular conjugations. for instance, in genesis 1:1, , is a singular verb, and a dual noun. the noun acts in the singular, as is translated "god" instead of "gods". there are of course other contextual hints. a person who reads hebrew has no issues with this stuff.
Are you saying you can't read Hebrew because you have an issue with this stuff?
BDB אלהים noun, masculine plural.
Is BDB all of a sudden wrong?
arachnophilia writes:
no. i'm getting tired of you asking for the same information over and over again because you've failed to understand it.
Somebody said, "if you can't explain something where someone else can understand it you do not know the subject yourself".
But it is not that I do not understand what is said. It is that you have not tried to present what it says.
arachnophilia writes:
there are two whole chapters in that book on infinitives. i have presented several examples from those chapters in this thread already. i cannot do more than hand you the textbook and copy examples from it. you're just going to have to try harder.
If there are only two types of verbs in the Hebrew language, what is there to look for?
If there is only perfect and imperfect verbs in Biblical Hebrew then there are no infinitives other than those that has been invented to make Biblical Hebrew read smooth in English.
There is the statement on page 189 by Waltke that a preposition + noun = complex preposition.
You take that statement to mean that any time a noun has a prefix attached to it the noun automatically becomes a preposition.
There is very little support for such a statement.
arachnophilia writes:
yes. i suggest you look it up. here's a hint: i've given you a textbook already.
Yes you did, one that was written in 1990. I don't think Brown, Driver or Briggs had an opportunity to read that book and form their opinions.
BTW on page 220 Waltke says:
quote:
By complex prepositions we mean the combinations of various prepositions and nouns or adverbs to constitute new entities often with meanings not predictable from the parts.
On page 221 he also says:
quote:
Some nouns show a frozen union with a preposition. These complex constructions function syntactically as prepositions, that is, THEY LINK AN AD-VERBAL NOUN TO THE VERB and specify the nature of its relationship to the governed noun.
arachnophilia writes:
I looked again and I still do not understand how I can remove ל from לפני and get פנה.
i don't understand it either. perhaps you should be more careful with spelling next time. and, um, find a better source.
I do understand how I can look for the root of לפני and find as the root פנה..
arachnophilia writes:
it means i don't actually need to say anything, because your argument is nonsense and contradictory.
Are you saying a preposition and a Prepositional phrase are the same thing?
arachnophilia writes:
infinitives are nouns.
First you have to create an infinitive out of the verb to turn it into a noun. You have no means of doing that.
arachnophilia writes:
context.
In other words say it says what you want it to say.
God Bless,

"John 5:39 (KJS) Search the scriptures; for in them ye think ye have eternal life: and they are they which testify of me."

This message is a reply to:
 Message 304 by arachnophilia, posted 04-20-2011 10:40 PM arachnophilia has replied

Replies to this message:
 Message 308 by arachnophilia, posted 04-25-2011 6:06 PM ICANT has not replied

  
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