The force between objects is given by
F=Gx m1m2/d^2 ,G is a constant I'll just say it's 1.
d=1
m2=10,000
Let's look at two cases, one where m1=1 and one where m1=0.1
Case 1, F=Gx m1m2/d^2=1x 1x10,000/1^2= 10,000
Case 2, F=Gx m1m2/d^2=1x 0.1x10,000/1^2= 1,000
So in case 1 the force of gravity=10,000 and in case 2 the force of gravity=1000.............BUT
Since F=ma the acceleration a=F/m
case 1, a=F/m=10,000/1=10,000
case 2, a=F/m=1000/0.1=10,000
WOW, look at that, even though case 1 is 10 times the mass of case 2, they both have the same acceleration.
I guess they will fall the same which answers your question.
If the attractive force of gravity is proportional to the mass of two bodies, why does an object of greater mass not fall quicker?
P.S. It appears to me many people don't understand F=ma, this means that if you apply a CONSTANT force to an object it will go faster and faster. When people push a heavy object, after they overcome the force of friction, they "think" they are applying a constant force and the object isn't going faster and faster. So F=ma doesn't seem right, but they actually slack up a bit and ARE NOT applying a constant force. It's why people think Newton was a genius.
Edited by petrophysics1, : No reason given.
Edited by petrophysics1, : add P.S.
Edited by petrophysics1, : spelling
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