rstrats
Member (Idle past 124 days) Posts: 138 Joined: 04-08-2004
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Message 1 of 3 (552392)
03-28-2010 4:45 PM
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I know the issue of fitting Matthew 12:40 into a Friday/Sunday period has been discussed before, but does anyone have any historical documentation that shows that the phrase; 3 days AND 3 nights, was a unique first century idiom of Hebrew/Aramaic/Greek which could mean something different than what the phrase means in English?
| Replies to this message: | | | Message 2 by rstrats, posted 06-07-2014 9:05 AM | | rstrats has not replied | | | Message 3 by AdminPhat, posted 06-07-2014 2:10 PM | | rstrats has not replied |
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rstrats
Member (Idle past 124 days) Posts: 138 Joined: 04-08-2004
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Message 2 of 3 (729240)
06-07-2014 9:05 AM
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Reply to: Message 1 by rstrats
03-28-2010 4:45 PM
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Since it's been awhile, someone new looking in my know of some writing.
| This message is a reply to: | | | Message 1 by rstrats, posted 03-28-2010 4:45 PM | | rstrats has not replied |
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