Biblical Literalism question

I know this has been gone over in various threads at various points, but I'm going to bring it up again.Faith, a while back, differentiated between parables in the Bible vs. stuff which should be taken literally. I accept that seperation.But what puzzles me is stuff in the old testament which sounds like exageration.Do literalists hold that the events are 100% accurate as told? Or is there wiggle room?For example: Did it really rain 40 days and 40 nights? Or was it 26 days and it felt like 40?Did Sampson kill everyone with the jawbone of an ass? Or did he kill a bunch of them and the rest just ran away?

Hey Nuggin,Check out the Metaphor vs Literal thread and see if it answers your questions. If not, I think your questions would fit into that thread. Just post them in a general reply.Let me know if you feel otherwise.

Good point! On my way!