Jesus: Why I believe He was a failure.

I notice Christians use the "dual prophecy/meaning" excuse when:1) Its shown the context of the story has nothing to do with prophecy.
2) Its shown the prophecy refers to something else entirely.
3) A prophecy fails. Peg actually brought up the King of Trye prophecy which is an utter failure, but "saved" bc the context is obliterated to make it "say" something else.So my question, where in the OT does it mention dual prophecies/meanings?

Can a Christian please show me where scripture mentions dual prophecies? Thanks.

What "cited" prophecies are there regarding Jesus? Without using dual meanings and metaphors, which ones are you refering to?

Hey, Buz...Until I can figure out why my computer cannot cut and paste your comments, I'll have to stand down.I have also been told my posts are not relevant. Not sure how, since this thread conerns the failures of Jesus. I was going to take the "messianic prophecy" route and show how Jesus could not have fulfilled them.... But I guess sine the current topic refers to Solomon....I also typed out a long response, posted it...but it seems to have disappeared, but my original stills stands. Oh well.Anyway, thanks for the reply. Again, until I can figure out what is wrong, I'll stand down. Edited by hERICtic, : No reason given.Edited by AdminPD, : WarningEdited by hERICtic, : No reason given.Edited by AdminPD, : Statement

The problem is that those arent Davids words. Those are words sung TO David. The LORD is god, the lord is David.Edited by hERICtic, : No reason given.

Hi Peg.I know from past debates that when OT scripture is brought up, to check the translation. Especially if its suppose to refer to Jesus. By that I mean, comparing the Bibles translation of OT scripture to the Tanach. Many times, its mistranslated. Many times, the Bibles translation twists the OT to make something look messianic, refering to Jesus, when that is not the case. Since you brought up Pslams, I decided to do that. Here is an example (just a lil off topic of one I can think of right away):
KJV:
Daniel 9: 26 And after threescore and two weeks shall Messiah be cut off, but not for himself: and the people of the prince that shall come shall destroy the city and the sanctuary; and the end thereof shall be with a flood,Christians use it to refer back to Jesus.Take a look at: JPS Hebrew Tanakh:
26 And after the threescore and two weeks shall an anointed one be cut off, and be no more; and the people of a prince that shall come shall destroy the city and the sanctuary; but his end shall be with a flood;Meaning changes drastically, doesnt it? Anyway, to get back on topic. I did a word search of Pslams, typing in Pslams 110 mistranslated. Many sites came up, dealing with this issue.This explains, as does many others, that it should read "a song OF David", not "by David", which changes the context.'The Lord Said to My Lord' To Whom Was the Lord Speaking in Psalm 110:1? | Outreach Judaism-------------------------------------------------------------------------------Also, I have read this thread from the beginning, incredible debate. But I am a lil confused on one issue. You keep stating that the bloodline did not have to go through Solomon. At least, thats how I am taking it. I just cannot understand why you keep stating that when it states it.1 Chron 28:5-7
And of all my sons, (for the LORD hath given me many sons,) he hath chosen Solomon my son to sit upon the throne of the kingdom of the LORD over Israel.
And he said unto me, Solomon thy son, he shall build my house and my courts (Who will? Solomon): for I have chosen him to be my son, and I will be his father.
Moreover I will establish his kingdom for ever (Who's kingdom forever? Solomon), if he be constant to do my commandments and my judgments, as at this day.2 Sam 7:12-16
And when thy days be fulfilled, and thou shalt sleep with thy fathers, I will set up thy seed after thee, which shall proceed out of thy bowels, and I will establish his kingdom. (Bloodline, through David)
He shall build an house for my name, and I will stablish the throne of his kingdom for ever. (Building the house, refers back to Solomon, doesnt it? If so, its refering back to the bloodline, which goes through Solomon).
I will be his father, and he shall be my son. If he commit iniquity, I will chasten him with the rod of men, and with the stripes of the children of men:
But my mercy shall not depart away from him, as I took it from Saul, whom I put away before thee.
And thine house and thy kingdom shall be established for ever before thee: thy throne shall be established for ever.Thanks.Edited by hERICtic, : No reason given.

Yet, nowhere in the Tanach does it ever state the messiah was to arrive without the "signs". Makes little sense that the messiah was to arrive without the "signs", when the Jews were looking for a messiah. Speaking of Jesus' own words, he is pretty clear in Matthew 24 whent he end times were to occur, during his followers lifetime. In fact, throughout the NT, its always the same-nearby, close, at hand, around the corner, etc.