I think there’s a bit of equivocation in terms here (science vs Lewis). The discussion is if CS Lewis’ argument is correct and it seemed easier to demonstrate that Lewis’ claim is wrong on the face of what he’s the arguing, rather than get into Lewis’ misconceptions of science.
Lewis writes:
This may be put in the form that the laws of Nature explain everything except the source of events. But this is rather a formidable exception.
Trae writes:
Did you even read this? Do you actually believe that Newton’s Law of Gravity does not explain the source of the event of an object falling?
It appears to me that Lewis doesn’t mean scientific laws in the same sense science does, but more in the, well look at how GDR replied:
GDR writes:
I understand that science can produce objective answers that philosophy and theology can't. I get that. I have no idea how you got the idea that I think C S Lewis has anything to say about science. I understand that the Law of Gravity is scientific. My only point is to ask the question of whether or not a law requires a law giver, and that is a philosophical or theological question that can only produce a subjective result.
MSG:120.
EvC Forum: Are Atheists "Philosophically Limited"....?
I suspect that GDR is correct and I assumed that was sort of what CS Lewis was claiming some philosophical argument which is little more than psudo science.
So I do believe that in the sense that Lewis seemed to be asking, that some ‘natural’ laws have
enough explanatory power for the type of question Lewis is asking. Even if ‘natural’ laws never give the same explanatory power as ‘some guy with a pool cue didit’, Lewis has presented nothing more than a straw man, because certainly Scientific Theories combined with laws do have explanatory power.
Anyway, I was trying to get GDR to see that Lewis’ comments shouldn’t hold up to even casual scrutiny, let alone scientific scrutiny.