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Author Topic:   Evidence to expect given a designer
Straggler
Member
Posts: 10333
From: London England
Joined: 09-30-2006


Message 108 of 373 (644785)
12-20-2011 4:52 PM
Reply to: Message 79 by Percy
12-19-2011 4:17 PM


Looking For Intelligence
Isn't SETI an example of us looking for signs of intelligence rather than (by definition) human activity?
If we found a signal expressing Pi to 100 decimal places in binary transmitted at the Hydrogen line frequency (or something like that) wouldn't that be clear evidence of intelligence?
I don't know what the "specific method for detecting intelligence" being applied is but such a thing would seem like a clear sign of intelligence anyway - No?

This message is a reply to:
 Message 79 by Percy, posted 12-19-2011 4:17 PM Percy has replied

Replies to this message:
 Message 110 by Percy, posted 12-20-2011 5:03 PM Straggler has not replied
 Message 111 by Taq, posted 12-20-2011 5:10 PM Straggler has replied

  
Straggler
Member
Posts: 10333
From: London England
Joined: 09-30-2006


Message 132 of 373 (644897)
12-21-2011 1:12 PM
Reply to: Message 111 by Taq
12-20-2011 5:10 PM


Re: Looking For Intelligence
Straggler writes:
If we found a signal expressing Pi to 100 decimal places in binary transmitted at the Hydrogen line frequency (or something like that) wouldn't that be clear evidence of intelligence?
Taq writes:
SETI is looking for something much simpler. They are looking for a narrowband transmission that is similar to human radio transmitters. They are not looking for binary codes, or any codes for that matter.
OK. But if we detected the signal I have described it would seem to indicate an intelligent source wouldn't it?
Taq writes:
It would be more accurate to say that SETI is looking for a specific type of technology, not intelligence per se.
Sure. But that technology would be indicative of intelligence would it not?
Percy writes:
I thought a bit about replying in more detail, but I quickly realized I'm not aware of any scientifically rigorous definition of intelligence, and anyway SETI is probably off-topic.
I have proposed a topic specifically about comparing the methods of SETI and IDists. If it gets promoted I hope to see what you have to say more fully there.
Edited by Straggler, : No reason given.

This message is a reply to:
 Message 111 by Taq, posted 12-20-2011 5:10 PM Taq has replied

Replies to this message:
 Message 133 by Taq, posted 12-21-2011 1:26 PM Straggler has not replied

  
Straggler
Member
Posts: 10333
From: London England
Joined: 09-30-2006


Message 158 of 373 (646000)
01-01-2012 5:16 PM
Reply to: Message 153 by Just being real
01-01-2012 5:01 AM


Re: Evidence for a designer
JBR writes:
Scientific observation A: Something has never been observed coming from nothing.
Scientific observation B: the universe "began."
A + B = C
"C" being something else that must infinitely exist from which the universe sprang.
Unless something that "infinitely exists" has been observed your C would seem to be in the same category as your A here. No?

This message is a reply to:
 Message 153 by Just being real, posted 01-01-2012 5:01 AM Just being real has replied

Replies to this message:
 Message 166 by Just being real, posted 01-02-2012 1:40 AM Straggler has replied

  
Straggler
Member
Posts: 10333
From: London England
Joined: 09-30-2006


Message 174 of 373 (646042)
01-02-2012 11:03 AM
Reply to: Message 166 by Just being real
01-02-2012 1:40 AM


Re: Evidence for a designer
JBR writes:
Scientific observation A: Something has never been observed coming from nothing.
Scientific observation B: the universe "began."
A + B = C - "C" being something else that must infinitely exist from which the universe sprang.
Straggler writes:
Unless something that "infinitely exists" has been observed your C would seem to be in the same category as your A here. No?
JBR writes:
This is only a trick question of course. Since we are only finite beings how would we ever observer the infinity of something? Let's suppose I were to look at some object that did in fact exist infinitely. How would I know that it did? Since I have not existed infinitely, I couldn't state for sure the object did or didn't.
Well likewise we can't observe something coming from literally a state of nothing because if we are there to observe it something must already exist. So - again - your A and C are by the terms of your argument in the same category.
JBR writes:
However infinity as a concept is something we most definitely can observe. The concept of directions like East or West are infinite. So is the end of the value of Pi. A sequence of numbers is infinite, and likewise is the concept of time... infinite. Many similar examples can be given.
Can I take it from this that you are happy for this infinite designer of your to exist only in the same sense that Pi can be said to exist?

This message is a reply to:
 Message 166 by Just being real, posted 01-02-2012 1:40 AM Just being real has not replied

  
Straggler
Member
Posts: 10333
From: London England
Joined: 09-30-2006


(1)
Message 175 of 373 (646043)
01-02-2012 11:16 AM
Reply to: Message 161 by Just being real
01-01-2012 11:42 PM


Re: Evidence for a designer
JBR on quantum fluctuations writes:
It is definitely not the observation of something coming from nothing.
Can you give an example of "something coming from nothing" that it would be possible for us to observe?

This message is a reply to:
 Message 161 by Just being real, posted 01-01-2012 11:42 PM Just being real has replied

Replies to this message:
 Message 228 by Just being real, posted 01-08-2012 12:21 AM Straggler has replied

  
Straggler
Member
Posts: 10333
From: London England
Joined: 09-30-2006


(2)
Message 292 of 373 (647221)
01-08-2012 5:54 PM
Reply to: Message 228 by Just being real
01-08-2012 12:21 AM


Re: Evidence for a designer
You constantly accuse me of trying to 'trip you up'. But I am simply asking you to justify how someting that "infinitely exists" is in any way observationally superior to your much maligned notion of "something from nothing". Will you at least accept that your "infinitely exists" isn't observationally supported?
JBR writes:
Scientific observation A: Something has never been observed coming from nothing.
Scientific observation B: the universe "began."
A + B = C - "C" being something else that must infinitely exist from which the universe sprang.
Straggler writes:
Unless something that "infinitely exists" has been observed your C would seem to be in the same category as your A here. No?
JBR writes:
This is only a trick question of course. Since we are only finite beings how would we ever observer the infinity of something? Let's suppose I were to look at some object that did in fact exist infinitely. How would I know that it did? Since I have not existed infinitely, I couldn't state for sure the object did or didn't.
Straggler writes:
Well likewise we can't observe something coming from literally a state of nothing because if we are there to observe it something must already exist. So - again - your A and C are by the terms of your argument in the same category.
Straggler writes:
Can you give an example of "something coming from nothing" that it would be possible for us to observe?
JBR writes:
I think though you were trying to trip me up in my words, you inadvertently supported my point. My point again is that we have never observed something come from nothing.
Have we ever observed anything that infinitely exists?
Is it possible to drectly observe someting that "infinitely exsts"? Is it possible to directly observe "something from nothng" as you have defined it to be?
If the answer to both these questions is "No" then your A and your C are in the same category by the terms of your very own argument are they not?

This message is a reply to:
 Message 228 by Just being real, posted 01-08-2012 12:21 AM Just being real has replied

Replies to this message:
 Message 302 by Just being real, posted 01-08-2012 11:35 PM Straggler has replied

  
Straggler
Member
Posts: 10333
From: London England
Joined: 09-30-2006


Message 312 of 373 (647321)
01-09-2012 9:01 AM
Reply to: Message 302 by Just being real
01-08-2012 11:35 PM


Re: Evidence for a designer
JBR writes:
That's because observationally we have only observed finite things come from something else.
Observationally we have only ever observed finite things. Period.
So if you are going to reject "something from nothing" on the basis that only the opposite has ever been observed you should also reject the notion of infinite (in time) things on the basis that only the opposite has ever been observed.
Why the inconsistency?
JBR writes:
And therefore there can not logically have ever been a time when there was nothing.
If time is something (which surely it must be) then - By definition there can be no time when there was nothing.
JBR writes:
That means that something has always existed.
It means something has existed for all of time.
JBR writes:
The term for something that has always existed is "infinite."
Presumably not if "always existed" constitutes the finite time of 13.7 billion years or so.

This message is a reply to:
 Message 302 by Just being real, posted 01-08-2012 11:35 PM Just being real has replied

Replies to this message:
 Message 316 by Just being real, posted 01-11-2012 12:40 PM Straggler has replied

  
Straggler
Member
Posts: 10333
From: London England
Joined: 09-30-2006


(1)
Message 327 of 373 (647949)
01-12-2012 7:51 AM
Reply to: Message 316 by Just being real
01-11-2012 12:40 PM


Re: Evidence for a designer
JBR writes:
The problem is we run into a logical stalemate.
Yes. That's my point. By the terms of your own argument there is a logical stalemate.
You want to reject "something from nothing" on the basis that it has never been observed. Indeed given that we are "something" it is by definition impossible for us to ever observe a state of nothingness.
But the exact same problem applies to "infinite in time". We have never observed this. And by virtue of the fact that we are finite in time it is impossible for us to ever observe this.
So the two options you put forward are identical by the terms you yourself have also put forward. Yet you embrace one and reject the other and proclaim that you are making some sort of logical distinction rather than simply demonstrating your subjective bias for some "infinite in time" designer.
JBR writes:
If we are going to assume based on observation that everything that has ever existed is finite because that is all we have ever observed, then how do we rationalize this mathematically? Finite things can not logically or mathematically also be infinite. Therefore we have no other choice but to conclude that there must exist something that we have yet to observe which can satisfy this logical dilemma.
Why doesn't something from nothing equally resolve this self appointed dilemma of yours?
JBR writes:
Suppose "time" is not a "something" but merely a human measurement to measure change.
Unless you are suggesting that before humans joined the ontological party changes were occurring without duration you seem to be making a distinction without a difference.

This message is a reply to:
 Message 316 by Just being real, posted 01-11-2012 12:40 PM Just being real has replied

Replies to this message:
 Message 332 by Just being real, posted 01-14-2012 6:45 AM Straggler has replied

  
Straggler
Member
Posts: 10333
From: London England
Joined: 09-30-2006


Message 336 of 373 (648333)
01-14-2012 4:55 PM
Reply to: Message 332 by Just being real
01-14-2012 6:45 AM


Selective "Logic"
You continue to talk yourself in circles trying to logically justify one evidentially baseless conclusion over another.
JBR writes:
If we eliminate the notion of time being a tangible thing...
Pardon? What is it that you think atomic clocks (for example) are measuring if not time? If I told you distance is a human invention that doesn't exist and that there is only separation between bodies you would (hopefully) point out that I am talking nonsense and making a distinction without a difference. You are doing the same.
JBR writes:
But what we have observed... is a state of "time" and a state of "something."
What we have observed is "something" (the observable universe and it's observable contents) changing in time.
JBR writes:
We do not logically need to reject the state of infinite time on the same basis as the concept of something from nothing.
Remind me on what basis you are rejecting "something from nothing" again?
JBR writes:
If our observations say that something is required in order for something to be, then the only logical conclusion is that something has always been in order for something to now be.
By the terms of your own flawed argument - If everything we have ever observed (including time itself) has a beginning and is not "infinite in time" then the only logical conclusion is that all things have a beginning and are not infinite in time.
JBR writes:
That is because our invention of the measure of time is mathematically limitless in both directions.
In what way is our mathematical concept of nothing limited in such a way that it logically precludes "something from nothing"....?
JBR writes:
It is not necessary to have observed something for an infinite amount of time in order to arrive at this logical conclusion.
Apply the same flawed logic to to the equally unobserved "infinite in time" and you'll end up with the opposite conclusion to the one you want.
You are being inconsistent and selective in your rejection of that which hasn't been observed.

This message is a reply to:
 Message 332 by Just being real, posted 01-14-2012 6:45 AM Just being real has not replied

  
Straggler
Member
Posts: 10333
From: London England
Joined: 09-30-2006


Message 356 of 373 (650103)
01-27-2012 3:20 PM
Reply to: Message 355 by ookuay
01-27-2012 3:08 PM


Re: If a tree falls in the forest...
Wrong writes:
Seeing as the speed of light can be surpassed since Earth isn't a vacuum and "alternate timeline" is descriptive enough for "time-space frame", I don't see the problem.
Can you give an example of the speed of light being surpassed because the "Earth isn't a vacuum".....?
Frankly you are so confused as to be almost incoherent here...

This message is a reply to:
 Message 355 by ookuay, posted 01-27-2012 3:08 PM ookuay has replied

Replies to this message:
 Message 358 by ookuay, posted 01-27-2012 8:09 PM Straggler has replied

  
Straggler
Member
Posts: 10333
From: London England
Joined: 09-30-2006


Message 366 of 373 (650155)
01-28-2012 11:03 AM
Reply to: Message 358 by ookuay
01-27-2012 8:09 PM


Re: If a tree falls in the forest...
Ooo writes:
No, the point I'd been making was that Einstein had reason to believe that an alternate time-space frame could be observed by surpassing the speed of light
Huh? Relativity tells us that there is no absolute time. That all time measurements depend on the observers frame of reference. The truth of this has nothing to do with moving at faster than light speed. And there is nothing in relativity to suggest the "alternate time-space frame" of the many worlds sort that you seem to be implying. Alternate universe theories are a product of quantum theory. Not relativity.
Ooo writes:
(which is impossible only in a vacuum)
At the risk of confusing the issue.... It is possible for particles to move faster than light does in a medium. Cherenkov radiation is an example of such. But this has nothing to do with alternative realities and suchlike.
Ooo writes:
Obviously I don't know in-depth physics ...
You don't seem to know any physics.....
Ooo writes:
Panda's example of time dilation of clocks seems a better example since it is possible at sub-light speeds.
If your ultimate point is that time is not simply some sort of subjectively derived man-made invention but instead and actual physical property of objective observable reality - Then - Yes.
But your argument for that point doesn't make any sense at all.

This message is a reply to:
 Message 358 by ookuay, posted 01-27-2012 8:09 PM ookuay has replied

Replies to this message:
 Message 367 by ookuay, posted 01-28-2012 3:14 PM Straggler has replied

  
Straggler
Member
Posts: 10333
From: London England
Joined: 09-30-2006


(2)
Message 373 of 373 (650232)
01-29-2012 8:39 AM
Reply to: Message 367 by ookuay
01-28-2012 3:14 PM


Re: If a tree falls in the forest...
Straggler writes:
If your ultimate point is that time is not simply some sort of subjectively derived man-made invention but instead and actual physical property of objective observable reality - Then - Yes. But your argument for that point doesn't make any sense at all.
Oo writes:
I came to the forum with biology- and philosophy- oriented knowledge, so you could definitely say I don't know any physics (nothing past Newton's laws of motion). That was my point but I defended it inadequately.
OK. Credit to you for fessing up.
My advice is to take part in some threads where you can contribute on firmer ground before diving head first into less familiar territory. EvC can be quite unforgiving on those who leap into discussions saying things that are demonstrably wrong or which don't make any sense. But it's also a great place to learn and to find out how much you really understand the things you think you understand by being forced to defend a given position based on evidence and argument.
Don't be put off by your initial foray.

This message is a reply to:
 Message 367 by ookuay, posted 01-28-2012 3:14 PM ookuay has not replied

  
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