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Author Topic:   The Jesus Puzzle by Earl Doherty
caffeine
Member (Idle past 1050 days)
Posts: 1800
From: Prague, Czech Republic
Joined: 10-22-2008


(1)
Message 7 of 39 (659044)
04-12-2012 8:27 AM
Reply to: Message 6 by Kairyu
04-12-2012 8:14 AM


Still, I can see why Jon is troubled bit by it, exact correct wording is important as a scholar, even when doing a somewhat informal introduction. I can't say much though, as I do not know much about the NT on a scholar level, only their time of writing and the general audience for each gospel.
Nor am I an expert, but from what little I remember from Bible classes in school 'Son of God' was used in Jewish writings for various significant and important people, like high priests and kings, without this meaning they themselves were gods themselves. Mark was generally considered the earliesyt gospel, and it is also the gospel in which Jesus is the least miraculous. The resurrection bit at the end is often considered a later addition.
By the time we reach John, the latest canonical gospel, there's all sorts of magic and hocus-pocus, and Jesus there is clearly God. But there's a school of thought that Mark was not about a literal son of God, but just a holy man. The story grew in the telling.

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caffeine
Member (Idle past 1050 days)
Posts: 1800
From: Prague, Czech Republic
Joined: 10-22-2008


Message 21 of 39 (659163)
04-13-2012 3:49 AM
Reply to: Message 13 by crashfrog
04-12-2012 12:06 PM


Re: Wait, what?
You seem to be confusing yourself by assuming that the words 'Christ' and 'Messiah' refer to God. In Christian beliefs, the Christ is, indeed, God. This is not the case in Jewish messianic beliefs though. Calling Jesus the Christ, or the Messiah, doesn't establish that he's supposed to be God.

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caffeine
Member (Idle past 1050 days)
Posts: 1800
From: Prague, Czech Republic
Joined: 10-22-2008


Message 38 of 39 (659467)
04-16-2012 6:09 AM
Reply to: Message 23 by crashfrog
04-13-2012 7:57 AM


Re: Wait, what?
It's the word "Lord" that refers to God, and in Mark "Lord" is twice used to refer to Jesus.
I didn't think that was particularly clear, since "Lord" does not only refer to God. Just as the English word can refer to God, or to a man with a noble title, so can the Greek word in the gospels (kurios) mean God, or a high-ranking individual, or the owner of a slave etc. In other contexts in the Gospel of Mark (in the KJV, at least), the translators chose the word 'sir' for 'kurios'. 'Lord' might simply mean 'master'.
However, I just did a bit of research, and it seems that, in the Old Testament bit that Mark is quoting, the Hebrew word was Jehovah, which is less ambiguous.

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