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Author Topic:   The Bible of Jesus?
Cold Foreign Object 
Suspended Member (Idle past 3068 days)
Posts: 3417
Joined: 11-21-2003


Message 7 of 68 (478710)
08-19-2008 10:05 PM
Reply to: Message 1 by doctrbill
08-18-2008 9:55 AM


Did Jesus authorize the Septuagint Bible?
By reading from it----yes. The LXX was "the Bible" in His day.
The majority of Hebrew people in Jesus' day accepted the Septuagint as inspired by God.
They accepted the translation and what was translated to be under Divine protectorate.
Jesus utilized the Septuagint in his ministry, even reading aloud from it in public.
This is a fact.
The apostles often quote from the Septuagint when citing passages of the Old Testament.
Yes, another fact.
Does this usage constitute endorsement of the Septuagint as the official Word of God?
YES.
Jesus is the ulimate authority. When He was handed the scroll to read from, that is, when He read from Isaiah, Jesus was reading from the LXX. This constitutes total endorsement.
Now critics would argue that what He quoted differs from texts translated by English translators and, more importantly, translations of the LXX as they now exist. They would argue contradiction.
Not so.
I am not saying contradictions do not exist. I am saying that whatever Jesus read aloud as recorded by Luke IS the CORRECT translation. Any source that contradicts is error because Jesus is the ultimate authority, the Word of God Incarnate----the Logos of St. John.
Ray

This message is a reply to:
 Message 1 by doctrbill, posted 08-18-2008 9:55 AM doctrbill has replied

Replies to this message:
 Message 8 by doctrbill, posted 08-20-2008 12:35 AM Cold Foreign Object has replied

  
Cold Foreign Object 
Suspended Member (Idle past 3068 days)
Posts: 3417
Joined: 11-21-2003


Message 9 of 68 (478776)
08-20-2008 6:03 PM
Reply to: Message 8 by doctrbill
08-20-2008 12:35 AM


So, do you accept the Septuagint as a whole because Jesus quoted a part of it? Or do you accept only those portions of the Septuagint which Jesus is recorded as having quoted?
Scholars accept that when Jesus quoted from the LXX that this means endorsement of the entire source.
I am not aware of any source which actually contradicts the Septuagint version of Isaiah 61:1,2. I am, however, wondering why the Septuagint version drops one of the lines found in the Hebrew version, and adds a couple not found in the Hebrew version. I am also wondering why the Luke version adds-in a line not present in either the Hebrew or the Septuagint. Any thoughts on that?
1. There are different translations of the LXX.
2. The KJV translators used both the LXX and MT when they translated the O.T.
3. The group of KJV scholars that translated Luke and the O.T. were not the same.
Above points establish three variations of translation.
Critics say that we do not know what the LXX really says based on the variations which they call descrepancies. But this is not true. The correct translation is what Jesus said in Luke, any other that contradicts is error.
Do you understand?
Ray

This message is a reply to:
 Message 8 by doctrbill, posted 08-20-2008 12:35 AM doctrbill has replied

Replies to this message:
 Message 11 by doctrbill, posted 08-20-2008 8:24 PM Cold Foreign Object has not replied

  
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