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Author Topic:   Adam was created on the 3rd day
arachnophilia
Member (Idle past 1366 days)
Posts: 9069
From: god's waiting room
Joined: 05-21-2004


Message 6 of 233 (336242)
07-29-2006 1:43 AM
Reply to: Message 1 by graft2vine
07-28-2006 7:28 PM


The second part of this verse begins with "in the day".
(b'yom -- "in the day") is a common hebrew idiom. it simply means "when." this is the one of only two usages where "day" does not refer to either a literal day, or daytime. the other usage is as "year" in genealogies.
um, maybe i'll address the rest of your post later. but this is certainly a new one.
(There is no closing of day 7)
yes there is. genesis 2:3.


This message is a reply to:
 Message 1 by graft2vine, posted 07-28-2006 7:28 PM graft2vine has replied

Replies to this message:
 Message 8 by graft2vine, posted 07-29-2006 8:24 AM arachnophilia has replied
 Message 115 by Reserve, posted 04-28-2007 8:12 AM arachnophilia has replied

  
arachnophilia
Member (Idle past 1366 days)
Posts: 9069
From: god's waiting room
Joined: 05-21-2004


Message 11 of 233 (336380)
07-29-2006 3:36 PM
Reply to: Message 8 by graft2vine
07-29-2006 8:24 AM


Gen 2:3 And God blessed the seventh day, and sanctified it: because that in it he had rested from all his work which God created and made.
There is no closing as in, "And the evening and the morning were the seventh day."
because god took the whole day off. shabat is different, special.


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arachnophilia
Member (Idle past 1366 days)
Posts: 9069
From: god's waiting room
Joined: 05-21-2004


Message 25 of 233 (337014)
07-31-2006 6:17 PM
Reply to: Message 23 by graft2vine
07-31-2006 5:36 PM


Re: image and likeness
I am no expert in literature, but from what I understand, redundancy doesn't work.
i hate to make this sound like an ad hominem, but it's not an issue of being an expert in literature, it's knowing this particular piece of literature, the bible, with a reasonable degree of familiarity.
it's not redundancy, it's standard biblical parallelism. in more poetic sections of the bible, (ie: psalms, and similar), this is often found in full lines that are nearly synonymous with the one before it. is that redundant? it's commonly thought that this was done for effect in biblical hebrew. in the less poetic passages (ie: genesis), a similar technique is used.
"I go to work at 7:30AM in the morning."
This is redundant because "AM" and "morning" mean the same thing. This doesn't fly in good literature. If image and likeness mean the same thing, it would be redundant.
look at the very next verse:
quote:
And God created man in His own image,
in the image of God created He him;
male and female created He them.
are the first two lines of that redundant? it's the same words. you've got a long way to go if you wanna remove this "redundancy" from the bible. expect a much thinner book when you're done.
anyways, the real topic. they do in fact mean the same thing, in that they are synonyms. but like any other set of synonyms, they have different connotations and flavours.
(tselem) "image" (literal image: picture, appearance)
(demut) "image" (figurative image: character, personality)


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arachnophilia
Member (Idle past 1366 days)
Posts: 9069
From: god's waiting room
Joined: 05-21-2004


Message 31 of 233 (337111)
08-01-2006 12:34 AM
Reply to: Message 30 by ringo
07-31-2006 7:43 PM


Re: image and likeness
Yep. We're old-school around here
you can get a firefox plugin for that. but i find it's faster just to type them.
Have you read the thread on The Difference Between Created and Formed? If you're saying Adam was "formed" on day three but not "created" until day six, you might want to man the pumps now.
most people have it the other way. i think both are a little, well, out there. they are simply two different (slightly contradictory) stories, with the same basic points, and different emphasis.
but i'm trying to figure out a good argument to post in repsonse to the op.


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arachnophilia
Member (Idle past 1366 days)
Posts: 9069
From: god's waiting room
Joined: 05-21-2004


Message 43 of 233 (337474)
08-02-2006 5:58 PM
Reply to: Message 41 by graft2vine
08-02-2006 4:55 PM


Re: seeing God
Jhn 1:18 No man hath seen God at any time;
except jacob.
oh, and moses.


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arachnophilia
Member (Idle past 1366 days)
Posts: 9069
From: god's waiting room
Joined: 05-21-2004


Message 118 of 233 (398212)
04-29-2007 7:07 PM
Reply to: Message 115 by Reserve
04-28-2007 8:12 AM


Re: 'yom' as a literal day in Genesis.
If you guys do not think 'yom' means a literal day in Genesis 1, then have a read through this
Geoscience Research Institute | I think we need more research on that...
i am aware of other interpretations. they are all flawed, for a number of reasons.
quote:
The term ym is always joined to a numeral. In Genesis 1:5 it is a cardinal and elsewhere in Genesis 1:1 - 2:3 it is always an ordinal. We will pay attention to this below.
the "yom+number" convention are actually the names of the days of the week in hebrew.
quote:
The term ym is consistently defined by a temporal phrase in the preceding sentence, "and there was evening and there was morning." This clause serves in a defining function for the word "day."
the text is specifically setting up the markers for the passage of time. it defines the hebrew day as starting at sundown (evening THEN morning) because darkness came before light. it then describes the week as having 7 days, starting with sunday, and ending with saturday (shabat). the chapter is about the division of time more than anything else. the days have to literal because this chapter is the etiological reasoning behind the origin of the hebrew work week.
quote:
The complementary creation account of Genesis 2:4-25 contains a non-literal, figurative meaning of the singular of the term ym, "day."
it's an idiomatic usage, which i described in the post you are responding to.
Edited by arachnophilia, : removed unnecessary quibble.


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arachnophilia
Member (Idle past 1366 days)
Posts: 9069
From: god's waiting room
Joined: 05-21-2004


Message 136 of 233 (400456)
05-14-2007 2:12 AM
Reply to: Message 111 by Garrett
04-27-2007 5:55 PM


basic literary analysis
Genesis 1 is an ordered list of events and Genesis 2 is a restatement of the creation account, in non-linear form emphasising key events. This was a common form of writing at the time. First state a ordered list, then discuss points more in-depth (not necessarily in order). There is no contradiction.
genesis 1 and 2 are approximately the same length. genesis 2's order is causal -- one action causes the next. the order cannot be non-linear. non-linear storytelling would be anachronistic anyways. short summaries followed by lengthy elaborations are, indeed, somewhat common in the bible. but i think you'll find the longer examples are the work of multiple authors. ie: job 1/2 (and 42?), vs job 3-41. it functions as recursive text, but it is the result of two completely separate hands. genesis 1 and 2 do not even function this way -- we would have to read genesis 1 as a larger story, and genesis 2 as an expansion of day 6. chapter 1 then would not be a summary of chapter 2.
Well another easy one would be found in the Bible itself. Matthew's treatment of Christ's ministry is topical and not always in order, whereas Mark's record is chronological.
again, texts of similar length, by different authors. it does not apply here.
Gleason Archer observed that the “technique of recapitulation was widely practiced in ancient Semitic literature. The author would first introduce his account with a short statement summarizing the whole transaction, and then he would follow it up with a more detailed and circumstantial account when dealing with matters of special importance” (1964, p. 118).
an example of this actually much more obvious than you think. it's genesis 1:1, and then genesis 1:2-2:4. the first verse says "in the beginning, god created the skies and the ground." and then the rest of the chapter tells how god created the skies (and all the objects in it) and the ground (and everything that lives on it).
it does not apply to genesis 1 and genesis 2. both are complete stories in their own right, written in two slightly different styles. they are comparable works, by different authors.
there have been some attempts to justify them against one another, so that they do not contradict, but this is rather pointless. it is distorting the meaning of one text with another. if you want a good rationalization for noncontradiction here, i could give one, but i promise it makes a lot more sense this way. especially in light of the rest of the bible and its compostion.


This message is a reply to:
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arachnophilia
Member (Idle past 1366 days)
Posts: 9069
From: god's waiting room
Joined: 05-21-2004


Message 188 of 233 (415431)
08-10-2007 2:33 AM
Reply to: Message 187 by IamJoseph
08-10-2007 2:28 AM


joseph, this was garbage when you first argued it, and it's still garbage. it requires tiwsting the text incredibly far away from its plain and simple meaning, discounting an entire chapter in favor of misreading a single verse.
please, take this claptrap to the appropriate thread.


This message is a reply to:
 Message 187 by IamJoseph, posted 08-10-2007 2:28 AM IamJoseph has replied

Replies to this message:
 Message 189 by IamJoseph, posted 08-10-2007 2:46 AM arachnophilia has replied

  
arachnophilia
Member (Idle past 1366 days)
Posts: 9069
From: god's waiting room
Joined: 05-21-2004


Message 190 of 233 (415434)
08-10-2007 3:04 AM
Reply to: Message 189 by IamJoseph
08-10-2007 2:46 AM


please take it to the appropriate thread.

This message is a reply to:
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