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Author Topic:   basic reading of genesis 1:1
New Cat's Eye
Inactive Member


Message 79 of 312 (607211)
03-02-2011 2:28 PM
Reply to: Message 78 by ICANT
03-02-2011 1:53 PM


Re: singular construct vs. "irregular plural"
I really think because of the many different worldviews we have complicated the original text far beyond what it is.
Well no shit...
The original text translated literally into english doesn't make any sense at all... 'In beginning created god sky earth' or whatever.
Any translation is going to be clouded by interpretation.
But that hasn't stopped you from claiming that the test says something very specific and if people don't agree with what you say it is, then they must conclude that god is a liar or it isn't his word.
You're just as guilty of forcing an interpretation as you are accusing others of doing.

This message is a reply to:
 Message 78 by ICANT, posted 03-02-2011 1:53 PM ICANT has not replied

Replies to this message:
 Message 83 by arachnophilia, posted 03-02-2011 6:50 PM New Cat's Eye has replied

  
New Cat's Eye
Inactive Member


Message 86 of 312 (607392)
03-03-2011 1:22 PM
Reply to: Message 83 by arachnophilia
03-02-2011 6:50 PM


Re: define "literal"
Hi arach, thanks for the reply.
Catholic Scientist writes:
The original text translated literally into english doesn't make any sense at all... 'In beginning created god sky earth' or whatever.
well, ICANT has been stumbling through "mechanical" (literal) translations this entire thread, continually demonstrating that he doesn't really know much about biblical hebrew (anymore).
I couldn't find it, but while you were gone for that while, I brought your name up in a debate with ICANT and he said that you were the one who doesn't know anything about hebrew The context was me explaining to him how you had showed me in the past that the phrase in Gen was better translated as 'when god was creating'...
Fortunately, the record speaks for itself.
the problem is that so much of the meaning of hebrew sentences is derived from contextual clues. for instance, we're talking about construct chains. it took ICANT several pages to even realize that you should insert an "of" to express that relationship in english, even though there is no actual "of" prefix present in the hebrew. simply placing an absolute and a construct form together is enough to imply that relationship. if we're translating "literally", should we put those "of"s into it?
Depends I mean, sure, if that's what it means then put it in there. But if you were translating just strictly what it literally said, then I think they should be left out if they're not written there. The reader would need to understand they were implied to make any sense out of it.
a hebrew person reading it would understand the relationship, but by leaving it out of the english, you obscure it. now, he's trying to puzzle out the differences between two or three nouns together in a row, and an actual construct, and why infinitive function as nouns.
oh, and there's a "the" definite article on "beginning" but it has been essentially removed, thanks to the "in" prefix. one always replaces the other, consonantally, even though the definite article is still represented in the vowels. should we translate something that subtle? if we excise the vowels, as ICANT seems to like, the "the" has to be determined entirely contextually.
I don't know enough about hebrew or the parts of languages to really know what your talking about enough to make any intelligible comment. But I do think I understand what you're saying so thanks for sharing.
Any translation is going to be clouded by interpretation.
it is. but only a little -
I was thinking about my claim... If you're just translating one word, say rojo in spanish, then really there's no interpretation to cloud the fact that it simply means "red".
- not as much as ICANT would like us to think. my points are not derived from any interpretation i am injecting into the text. rather, they are derived solely from the subtleties of the grammar, and are the source for my interpretations.
I see that. I think that I was originally thinking that there's always going to be some idioms or idiosyncrasies that just don't directly, or literally, translate from one language to another.
Like the greeting: "What's up?" doesn't get translated into spanish as lo que esta arriba (what is upwards?) because that wouldn't make any sense. Converly, we don't translate que pasa (accents removed) as "what has passed?" because we don't talk like that in 'Merican. But those would be the strictly literal translations, right? (Spanish is the only other language I know anything about besides Engligh)
So if the hebrew says "On beginning", then I suppose that would be the literal translation, but I wouldn't translate it like that if I wanted anyone to understand what was actually meant to be said.
this thread began as an argument, not with ICANT but with IamJoseph, about the so called "gap theory", which postulates two (or more) creation events, as a way to rectify a literal reading of genesis with modern scientific knowledge about the age of the earth. i would have no problem if the bible did describe such an event (indeed, the repopulation of the earth after the flood almost qualifies as a second creation), but my point was that this reading is not supported by the grammar of the first few verses of genesis.
I'm familiar with the Gap Theory and ICANT's (mis)use of it. I've actually refuted his interpretation in another way if you care to read it:
This is the refined version, Message 263, of the earlier argument I simply stumbled upon myself, Message 198.
Basically, I can't puts Gen 2 - Gen 4 in between Gen 1:1 and Gen 1:2, and then continues on with Gen 5 after Gen 1, IIRC. THe problem I exposed is that the characters at the end of Gen 4 and the beginning of Gen 5 are the same people with the same names so they couldn't be talking about two different groups of people. ICANT's only response is that there could be two different families with the exact same names
the thread was revived when ICANT intimated a similar idea, in Message 17 of the How Creationism Explains Hominid Fossil Skulls thread, where he writes,
quote:
So unless God told or either showed Moses what happened in the beginning during his 40 days on the mountain with Him how would anyone know information that has been confirmed in these latter times?
According to Genesis there should be fossils of mankind and animals that existed before the events recorded in Genesis 1:2-2:3. Those fossils exist.
as a way to explain other hominid fossils. genesis does not support this position, grammatically, and so after some off-topic argument, i referred him here.
Being refuted in the past does not stop ICANT from repeating his same old arguments and claiming they've never been refuted. He is not an honest person. That just raises more doubt in him knowing anything about hebrew either.
He simply debates like old people do (and he is an old person). They're stuck in their ways as they have been for years and they're not going to actually listen to anybody that challenges them or change their position at all.
again, i would have no issue with the so called "gap theory" if it was actually supported by genesis. for instance, any of these arguments would not have raised a grammatical from me:
  • those fossils represent the people who lived outside eden and/or the descendants of cain
  • those fossils represent the nephilim of genesis 6
  • those fossils represent the wicked people who were killed the flood
  • those fossils were put there by satan to fool you
  • those fossils are demons
  • etc
they might have raised theological or interpretive arguments, or even scientific ones. but this is not any of those -- its an argument that the bible does not actually support that position, and is based only on grammar and syntax, and not interpretation, theology, or science. indeed, any and all of those topics are off topic to this thread.
You've certainly got a solid case against him. I'll remember this, and my other rebuttle of his interpretation, next year when he tells some new guy that he has this interpretation that nobody has ever refuted before.

This message is a reply to:
 Message 83 by arachnophilia, posted 03-02-2011 6:50 PM arachnophilia has replied

Replies to this message:
 Message 87 by arachnophilia, posted 03-03-2011 7:30 PM New Cat's Eye has not replied

  
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