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Author Topic:   Biblical Translation—Eden, 4
Dawn Bertot
Member (Idle past 105 days)
Posts: 3571
Joined: 11-23-2007


Message 301 of 306 (472999)
06-26-2008 12:11 PM
Reply to: Message 300 by autumnman
06-26-2008 11:50 AM


Re: Masoretic Kethib Heb. Eden Translation of
Most Hebrew scholars are not secular; they are influenced by the various biblical traditions that they adhere to. It is very difficult for any scholar who embraces a certain religious doctrine to translate a source text in a manner that does not conform to his or her religious doctrine. No body is “deliberately misrepresenting” the source text, they are merely expounding on the text as they expositor translate it so that it fits their particular religious views; and the views of the audience they are translating for, since the expositor is reader oriented.
It is very difficult for any scholar who embraces a certain religious doctrine to translate a source text in a manner that does not conform to his or her religious doctrine.
This is why there is a body of scholars to avoid this very thing. The chances that they would all be able to influence the text is nearly impossible. it seems more reasonable that they would appeal to thier schloarship and avoid the thing you are advocating. It is also true that your application of the "interpres" method is much to extreme and literal at times. Your above quote is both unfounded and unreasonable and quite biased for the reason I have stated.
To demonstrate this point and as to not be considered a bold assertion, I point out your interpretation of the passage of "wet" and "dry" ground. In you view it could not be both because both are mentioned in the same verse. This ignores the fact that in just that one verse alone, hours and days could be under consideration. The "intrerpres" must be tempered with common sense.
For example: The scholars who rendered The Open Bible translate the personal name “Adam” quite often in their translation of the Eden Narrative. However, the scholars who render the New Revised Standard Version translate “the man” {since a personal name cannot take the definite article prefix}, thus indicating that there is no personal name “Adam” presented anywhere in the Eden Narrative.
Both of these “committees of scholars” are rendering the Hebrew Source Text in a manner that conforms to their “Religious Understanding” of what the Source Text is supposed to be conveying. Neither of these “committees of scholars” are interpres translating the Source Text so to actually learn what the Hebrew Source Text may actually be conveying.
Great, this is what I was looking for. Now with this in mind, maybe you could translate as well as possible, the "small" Eden narative to english. Even though the word Adam is not used, will the rest of the text bear out the standard undersanding of the narrative as a literal story and not simply a poem, prose or fable. Is one completly unjustified in believing it a literal after its translation and transmission, aside from not believing in the supernatural?
Be back in a while.
D Bertot
Edited by bertot, : No reason given.
Edited by bertot, : No reason given.
Edited by bertot, : No reason given.
Edited by bertot, : No reason given.

This message is a reply to:
 Message 300 by autumnman, posted 06-26-2008 11:50 AM autumnman has replied

Replies to this message:
 Message 303 by autumnman, posted 06-26-2008 5:59 PM Dawn Bertot has not replied

autumnman
Member (Idle past 5035 days)
Posts: 621
From: Colorado
Joined: 02-24-2008


Message 302 of 306 (473003)
06-26-2008 1:03 PM
Reply to: Message 299 by Dawn Bertot
06-26-2008 11:39 AM


Re: The Hebrew Eden Narrative Map
bertot:
My simple point here was that this process did not happen over night, it was very slow and maticulous and carefully done as all the evidence would indicate. That is point though, isnt it. A careful consideration of what they had (Gods Word), being translted from one "known" text to another, even if some of theealiest ones are not still in existence. The ones we do have and there faithful transmission would indicated thier very existence.
“Translated” is the operative word here. “Translations” of ancient texts do not necessarily convey in an accurate fashion what the Source Text is conveying. Let’s use the word “Transmitted” meaning, “copied”, then I will be in agreement with you.
Further, one cannot simply dismiss intervention and providence in the process. As much as one may not like the idea, the content of the documents lend great suppport for this concept. Aside from this however, one could still be confident ased on the documents themselves. As you put it below:
Again, when it comes to doing an honest translation of these ancient document the Religious Doctrine adhered to by the translator should be put aside so that the Source Text can receive an unbiased attention to detail. Supernatural intervention and providence may well have been part of the original composition thousands of years ago? But so what, if translators are altering what the text actually conveys so to make the text say what is expected by their current Religious Doctrine? What you end up with is the word of the current Religious Doctrine conveyed by the current translator. But you are most certainly not getting an unbiased expression of “The Word of God.”
Think about it.
Is the BNHK still in existence?
Of course the Biblical-New Hebrew Kethib Text is still in existence. Above I shared with you the Masoretic Kethib and the Samaritan Kethib.
AM deciding whether or not the scriptures is the word of God or not, is not like choosing between a movie or a concert. Ones indication and decision will determine how he or she approaches it before, during and after studies. One does not need to "prove" this or that, only that there is enough information and evidence to support a given conclusion. "believing whatever fires your rocket" hardly describes how one would consider or interpret the scriptures.
If the vowel pointing of the Masoretic Text is questioned, then all translations based on that vowel pointing is being questioned. That is not a bad thing. All translations of the Kethib need to be questioned, for they all cannot be “correct”. Do you see what I am saying? Deciding what “interpretive translation” is in fact “the Word of God” will depend upon the Religious Doctrine adhered to by the person doing the deciding.
There is not a world-wide consensus regarding what “interpretive translation” of the Kethib constitutes “the Word of God.” That is a fact!
To demonstrate this point I give you the example that we were discussing about Christ's ascension and decension. You were viewing the topic from a nearly a one verse (very literal "interpres) interpretation, in contrast I was viewing what the scritptures had to say on the topic overall, SEE THE DIFFERENCE? To me it is a body of consistent doctrine, you do not view that way. It makes all the difference in the world how you approach the scriptures. An examination of a bare text with no understanding of what it has to say overall or viewing it as not necessarily inspired, is ok but will only take you so far.
Right! You comprehend the translation and interpretation of an ancient document based on what another ancient document”based on a particular Religious Doctrine”happens to convey. That is precisely how the Masoretic Hebrew scholars descided how the Kethib should be vocalized: based on what their particular Religious Doctrine demanded.
As an example of this I offer what you said in another post early on. You indicated that you had not studied the "rest" of the scriptures as you have the Hebrew Eden narrative, SEE THE DIFFERENCE
You are taking my words out of context, but I really do not care. The point is, the various Religious Doctrines conveyed in the Scriptures after the Eden Narrative do not alter the actual Kethib of the Hebrew Eden Narrative. I come at the Kethib Eden Narrative as if I do not know what it is “supposed” to say, but rather I study the Kethib Eden Narrative to learn what it actually may be conveying. If what it actually conveys confirms a particular Religious Doctrine, I will be happy with that. If what the Kethib Eden Narrative turns out not to support any existing Religious Doctrine, I will be happy with that too.
Do you see the difference?
Ger

This message is a reply to:
 Message 299 by Dawn Bertot, posted 06-26-2008 11:39 AM Dawn Bertot has replied

Replies to this message:
 Message 305 by Dawn Bertot, posted 06-26-2008 10:03 PM autumnman has not replied
 Message 306 by Dawn Bertot, posted 06-27-2008 1:39 AM autumnman has not replied

autumnman
Member (Idle past 5035 days)
Posts: 621
From: Colorado
Joined: 02-24-2008


Message 303 of 306 (473056)
06-26-2008 5:59 PM
Reply to: Message 301 by Dawn Bertot
06-26-2008 12:11 PM


Re: Masoretic Kethib Heb. Eden Translation of
bertot wrote:
This is why there is a body of scholars to avoid this very thing. The chances that they would all be able to influence the text is nearly impossible. it seems more reasonable that they would appeal to thier schloarship and avoid the thing you are advocating. It is also true that your application of the "interpres" method is much to extreme and literal at times. Your above quote is both unfounded and unreasonable and quite biased for the reason I have stated.
Is this the above quote you are referring to?
quote:
It is very difficult for any scholar who embraces a certain religious doctrine to translate a source text in a manner that does not conform to his or her religious doctrine.
This is a quote from the “Adam Clark” article you shared:
quote:
However, the majority of Hebrew scholars are "Jewish", and thus cannot be expected to be objective and candid regarding such a matter.
How is it that he is saying anything different that what I conveyed in the above quote?
To demonstrate this point and as to not be considered a bold assertion, I point out your interpretation of the passage of "wet" and "dry" ground. In you view it could not be both because both are mentioned in the same verse. This ignores the fact that in just that one verse alone, hours and days could be under consideration. The "intrerpres" must be tempered with common sense.
Both are not mentioned in the same verse. Furthermore, there are a vast number of “unrealistic” or “riddle-like” passages woven throughout the Hebrew Eden Narrative, which point to the fact that the Hebrew Eden Narrative was composed in a manner that does not lend itself to being interpreted as a “prosaic historical account.” If the Hebrew Eden narrative is not a prosaic literary description of an actual historical event, and it is also not a folktale or myth, then the only other option, as far as I can see, it that the Hebrew Eden Narrative is a “poetic/proverbial wisdom text.
Getting back to the “wet” and “dry” ground passage:
Gen. 2:5 states that no plants or herbs are growing because God has not yet caused rain to fall upon the earth.
Gen. 2:6 then describes a mist ascending from the dry-ground and in turn irrigating the entire face of the ground.
Gen. 2:7 then describes God “forming?” the human archetype of dry-dust from the newly irrigated ground.
That is simply what the Kethib Hebrew Text conveys. If you wish to perceive the Kethib Hebrew Text as the “Word of God”, then that is what the “Word of God” conveys.
The Hebrew Text is conveying something extremely important here, and you are not listening to the Hebrew Text at all.
Just read the Text, and stop apologizing for what does not appear to make immediate sense. The author intended to write the Text as it is written. Listen to what the author is trying to convey. It’s not “rocket science.” It is “common sense.” It is like someone a long time ago writing, “A rose by any other name is still a rose.” That, my friend, is common sense. Thus, “Dust by any other name is still dust.” “For dust you are”; now there is a wonderfully enlightening statement. Check it out.
I am really tired, so I’ll have to stop here for a bit. All the best,
Ger

This message is a reply to:
 Message 301 by Dawn Bertot, posted 06-26-2008 12:11 PM Dawn Bertot has not replied

AdminNosy
Administrator
Posts: 4754
From: Vancouver, BC, Canada
Joined: 11-11-2003


Message 304 of 306 (473076)
06-26-2008 8:50 PM


Closing here see continuation thread.
Message 1 Is open to continue this discussion.
Will you be sure to summarize this thread in the new one and point back to this one.
I'll close in a bit after you get a chance to wrap up here.
Thanks
Edited by AdminNosy, : fix link
Edited by AdminNosy, : No reason given.

Dawn Bertot
Member (Idle past 105 days)
Posts: 3571
Joined: 11-23-2007


Message 305 of 306 (473080)
06-26-2008 10:03 PM
Reply to: Message 302 by autumnman
06-26-2008 1:03 PM


Re: The Hebrew Eden Narrative Map
“Translated” is the operative word here. “Translations” of ancient texts do not necessarily convey in an accurate fashion what the Source Text is conveying. Let’s use the word “Transmitted” meaning, “copied”, then I will be in agreement with you.
AM sorry for the delay I will get to this late this evening got a few real world things going on.
Earlier this afternoon I got about half way through one on the post you had wrote and my computer locked up on me.
D Bertot
Edited by bertot, : No reason given.
Edited by bertot, : No reason given.

This message is a reply to:
 Message 302 by autumnman, posted 06-26-2008 1:03 PM autumnman has not replied

Dawn Bertot
Member (Idle past 105 days)
Posts: 3571
Joined: 11-23-2007


Message 306 of 306 (473107)
06-27-2008 1:39 AM
Reply to: Message 302 by autumnman
06-26-2008 1:03 PM


Re: The Hebrew Eden Narrative Map
“Translated” is the operative word here. “Translations” of ancient texts do not necessarily convey in an accurate fashion what the Source Text is conveying. Let’s use the word “Transmitted” meaning, “copied”, then I will be in agreement with you.
That is tenable, but I simple think if you figure in providence and intervention, in conjuntion with the unity of theme and teaching it becomes even more acceptable and believable.
Again, when it comes to doing an honest translation of these ancient document the Religious Doctrine adhered to by the translator should be put aside so that the Source Text can receive an unbiased attention to detail. Supernatural intervention and providence may well have been part of the original composition thousands of years ago? But so what, if translators are altering what the text actually conveys so to make the text say what is expected by their current Religious Doctrine? What you end up with is the word of the current Religious Doctrine conveyed by the current translator. But you are most certainly not getting an unbiased expression of “The Word of God.”
Think about it.
I have, and I hae given all the evidence as to why I dont agreeI dont agree, for the reasons already indicated earlier. But I think a discussion may still be possible. As one writer puts it:
EVIDENCE OF RELIABLE BIBLE TRANSMISSION
The Old Testament
The Dead Sea Scrolls make up one of the greatest archaeological discoveries of all times. In 1947, a number of ancient documents were found by accident in a cave on the northwest side of the Dead Sea. This collection of documents, which has become known as the Dead Sea Scrolls, was comprised of old leather and papyrus scrolls and fragments that had been rolled up in earthen jars for centuries. From 1949 to 1956, hundreds of Hebrew and Aramaic manuscripts and a few Greek fragments were found in surrounding caves, and are believed by scholars to have been written between 200 B.C. and the first half of the first century A.D. Some of the manuscripts were of Jewish apocryphal and pseudepigraphal writings (e.g., 1 Enoch, Tobit, and Jubilees); others often are grouped together as “ascetic” writings (miscellaneous books of rules, poetry, commentary, etc.). The most notable and pertinent group of documents found in the caves of Qumran near the Dead Sea is the collection of Old Testament books. Every book from the Hebrew Bible was accounted for among the scrolls except the book of Esther.
One of the caves where the Dead Sea Scrolls were discovered
The Dead Sea Scrolls serve as strong evidence for the integrity of the Old Testament text. Prior to 1947, the earliest known Old Testament manuscripts went back only to about A.D. 1000. With the discovery of the Dead Sea Scrolls, Bible scholars have been able to compare the present day text with the text from more than 2,000 years ago. Textual critics have found that these ancient copies of Old Testament books are amazingly similar to the Massoretic text. Indeed, they serve as proof that the Old Testament text has been transmitted faithfully through the centuries. As Rene Paché concluded: “Since it can be demonstrated that the text of the Old Testament was accurately transmitted for the last 2,000 years, one may reasonably suppose that it had been so transmitted from the beginning” (1971, p. 191). What’s more, if copies of the Old Testament in the first century were sufficiently accurate for Jesus and the apostles to quote them and teach from them, and we possess Old Testament manuscripts that date back to (or before) the time of Christ, then Christians should feel extremely confident about the condition of the Old Testament in the 21st century”at least as confident as was Jesus (cf. Matthew 22:31). Eric Lyons, 'Apologeticspress.org'., Inspired writings and compotent copyist.
Inspired Writers and Competent Copyists - Apologetics Press
Of course the Biblical-New Hebrew Kethib Text is still in existence. Above I shared with you the Masoretic Kethib and the Samaritan Kethib.
Forgive me I thought the 9th century masoretic text was the oldest Hebrew manuscripts we possessed. Are the above complete or are they fragmnets?
If the vowel pointing of the Masoretic Text is questioned, then all translations based on that vowel pointing is being questioned. That is not a bad thing. All translations of the Kethib need to be questioned, for they all cannot be “correct”. Do you see what I am saying? Deciding what “interpretive translation” is in fact “the Word of God” will depend upon the Religious Doctrine adhered to by the person doing the deciding.
There is not a world-wide consensus regarding what “interpretive translation” of the Kethib constitutes “the Word of God.” That is a fact!
I agree to some extent, but simply knowing the "vowel points" are inaccurate demonstrates alot about what we do know and posses. All of the translations only need to be interpreted in conjuction with what is known and demonstratable.
More in a minute.
D Bertot
Edited by bertot, : No reason given.

This message is a reply to:
 Message 302 by autumnman, posted 06-26-2008 1:03 PM autumnman has not replied

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