Biblical Statements About Infallibility/Inerrancy (A Theology / No Science Topic)

I'm a new comer to this post but I do have a few comments"anyways, the point that i'm trying to demonstrate is that inspiration does NOT mean infallible. if it does, why do our four inspired gospels contradict each other? why do the inspired writings of paul contradict the inspired writings about what jesus said?"I would like Arachnophilia to be more specific and present examples from the Biblical text when he says this.Furthermore, I do not believe anybody has brought up Hebrews 1:1-2 which I believe is pointing to the inerrancy of Scriptures"God, who at various times and in various ways spoke in time past to the fathers by the prophets, has in these last days spoken to us by His Son, whom He has appointed heir of all things, through whom also He made the worlds"-One last note: I respectfully ask that the using of God's Name be captitalized as some viewers find this offensive and is the only proper way of showing respect both to God and others

Speaking of infallibility: was written when, again? Not the 20th or 21st century, was it?

I respectfully ask that God be referred to by Odin, his true name, as some viewers find this misnaming offensive and this is the only proper way of showing respect both to Odin and othersThis message has been edited by DrJones*, 11-17-2004 12:19 AM

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*not an actual doctor

Hi Saline,Welcome to EvCforum. If you want to know how to make the nice neat boxes or any other kind of formatting trick that you see someone else do, click the RAW TEXT button at the bottom of another person's post. You can also check out the questions and suggestions forums if you need help.Happy Posting-DawgThis message has been edited by AdminDawg, 11-17-2004 01:05 AM

If you consider the universe to be 15 billion years old, the last two millinea could very easily be considered "The last days".

When will all of you "learned scholars" stop quoting this? The word in the hebrew means murder, not kill. ...Unless you make no distinction between murdering and killing?I'm sorry, but if you're going to keep bringing up this commandment for debate, you need to know what it actually says.

Thanks for the help

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When will all of you "learned scholars" stop quoting this? The word in the hebrew means murder, not kill. ...Unless you make no distinction between murdering and killing?

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Is there a distinction? I mean is murder like killing, only more so, or what?In reality, killing is what we do to them, and murder is what they do to us.

Howdy SalineSage;

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Hebrews 1:1
God, who at various times and in various ways spoke in time past to the fathers by the prophets

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This may be a good verse to use for inerrancy but isn't it related to the following verse from 2 Peter mentioned by Winston previously?

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2 Peter 1:21
For prophecy never had its origin in the will of man, but men spoke from God as they were carried along by the Holy Spirit.

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Prophecy is a subset of what's in the Bible. Can verses that refer to it's inerrancy be used for the whole of the Bible?thanx
PM1K

Hi Hangdawg,Could you go into when the Hebrew word for murder would be used and when the Hebrew word for killing would be used?thanx
PM1K