WE HAVE A LAW, and he shall die according to our Law, [where there's no cross...]

Should the lamb be judged by two different trials?Or by two different laws?After the first and unique condemnation at synedrius [by Ishrael's Law], a supposed second judgement [by roman laws], wouldn't make worthless the authority of the High priests before the eyes of the people?What really did the high priests need ask to Pilatos?Did they ask him to make a new judgement, now by roman laws?Or, did they ask him to order a command of soldiers to execute what none Ishraelee could do: "to susppend a condemned one by the ishraelee wood (tied with chords)"?If you were the Higher [the Verb that became flesh], (?)would you make worthless your own eternal Word you has pronounced to Ishrael:"An unique Law be for you and for the strangers that stay with you"?

Is there anybody at EvC that could answer [or; at least, to present her/his point of wiew that help to answer] one of seven questions presented in this topic?*******Thank YouThis message has been edited by Zsafira, 01-05-2005 16:23 AM

Three details. Only three smallest details: name, sign and number. Details that comes from the beast. From what is today's Pergamus, where is sat the throne of the dragon.
Would you mean that one of these three could go on and prospers without an "insert few words in order to replace an original hebrew manuscript of the New Testament"?SANCTA MATRIX PROSTITUTA G—TICA BABILNICA ROMANESCA NEVER CHANGES ANY WORD IN THE TEN COMMANDMENTS, NEITHER IN THE TEN COMMANDMENTS, NOT EVEN IN THE CALLED OLD TESTAMENT, BECAUSE THE WHOLE CALLED OLD TESTAMENT, ALWAYS COMES DIRECTLY FROM ISHRAEL AND FROM THE LAW (TORAH). And whoever 7DayLaodicean'HGW(666)'re'Legion/be'leave that say that the Sancta Matrix/holy Mother have changed anything tell versions of the reality and not the Reality itself.*******ZsafiraThis message has been edited by Zsafira, 01-05-2005 16:31 AM

Since you are talking about 666, I would add something I got from a forum:The scripture exhorts one who has wisdom, to calculate the number of the beast, 666. (Rev.13: 18)Research into the spelling of the name, Kofi Annan, The Secretary General of the United Nations suggests that it's numeric value could be 666. Here are the factors leading to that conclusion.1) Biblically speaking, only first names are relevent. The use of last names is relitively new. The name Kofi from the african language Akan, means "born of Friday" or just "Friday" as further research on the name points out. The word Friday translated to Hebrew is Yom Shishi, literally "sixth day". Each word contains 3 Hebrew letters:Yom is spelled: yud, vav, memshishi is spelled: Shin, shin, yudEach letter has a numerical value ................yud = 10
vav = 6
mem + 40
So the word "yom" (day) amounts to 56shin = 300
shin = 300
yud = 10
So the word shishi (sixth) amounts to 610Therefore, "yom shishi" (Friday) amounts to 6662) The beast who once was, and now is not , is an eighth king. (Rev. 17:11)Kofi is currently serving in the 8th slot, as Sectetary General, of the U.N. after being the only ever to be re-elected . (He was the 7th)Some source:African Names - Behind the Name (meaning of the name)Universitt Zrich (click on unit 1 of the course... then on Akan names. This will show you that we can drop the "born on" part of the name and focus on just Friday.Introduction to Gematria – Hebrew Numerology – GalEinai – Revealing the Torah's Inner Dimension ( on the left, click on Gematria Hebrew letter chart )http://www.un.org/News/ossg/sg/pages/sg_biography.html (biography of Kofi)http://www.newsmax.com/archives/articles/2...27/180012.shtml ( Father of lies)

Jesus was judged by the secular government and no charges could be brought against Him. They only gave in to the urges of the religious crowd to appease the Jewish minority. I will not say that the Jews killed Jesus, for it was the evil spirits which were swirling around everyone who did this. The Jewish people were so strict on the fact that their scripture must be the Law that they could not accept the fact that God had come and that they were not joyfully following Him. Their own refusal to see the Messiah caused the Evil to triumph. This did not surprise God, however. God knew that His Son...Himself Incarnate..would have to die to provide the sacrifice that would free up all of mankind from the original curse of Original Sin. With Jesus, God corrected Eves and Adams mistake of disobedience.

Couldn't agree more.
Addition:
Jesus saved us from sacrificing with blood.
If you see: (Genesis 4
3 And in process of time it came to pass, that Cain brought of the fruit of the ground an offering unto the LORD.
4 And Abel, he also brought of the firstlings of his flock and of the fat thereof. And the LORD had respect unto Abel and to his offering:
5 But unto Cain and to his offering he had not respect. And Cain was very wroth, and his countenance fell.Blood needed to give offering and to cover the sins, but Cain gave fruits. Cain was rebelling against God's will.
And now God has saved us with His own Son's blood, Blood of an Innocent.

Phatboy, up to the present, didn't answer:Verily, did Pilatos to realize a judgment? Or, has Pilatos asked for a few answers only?Did Pilatos to condemn the annointed lamb?Did Pilatos to participate with the high priests (defensors of the synedriums) to share as one, an only condemnation by roman laws?If you know who would change Law and Times, then you might know the answers.But if, somebody else deceives, like "religion"; "beliefs" or "mary-go-with-others", deceiving will tell you the same lie that is told to the deceived:And the lie is this:"That to change Times and Laws involves to change a few words in the Ten commandments only".Should the lamb be judged by two different trials?
Or by two different laws?After the first and unique condemnation at synedriums [by Ishrael's Law], a supposed second judgment [by roman laws], wouldn't make worthless the authority of the High priests before the eyes of the people?What really did the high priests need ask to Pilatos?Did they ask him to make a new judgement, now by roman laws?Or, did they ask him to order a command of soldiers to execute what none Ishraelee could do: "to susppend a condemned one by the ishraelee wood (tied with chords)"?If you were the Higher [the Verb that became flesh], (?)would you make worthless your own eternal Word you has pronounced to Ishrael:"An unique Law be for you and for the strangers that stay with you"?

Did Pilate sit in a judgment? Or, has Pilatos asked for a few answers only?Did Pilate participate with the high priests (defensors of the synedriums) to share as one, an only condemnation by roman laws?Should the lamb be judged by two trials?When the principles of the ishraelee priests have told "We have a Law, and he shall die according to our law (where there's no cross...)",
[?]Has Pontfice Pilatos determined (or; fixed) the cross, after the saying of the high priests??This message has been edited by Zsafira, 01-05-2005 18:33 AM

Zsgeha Zsfira = I have trouble following what it is that you are trying to say, but I will try. I do not understand all of that gnostic numerical jibberish that you are into, but as for these seven questions, let me attempt to answer them as I see the scripture. OK? Do you mean judged by the Jewish Law and then judged by the Roman Law as well? Both sources of authority were based on human authority, if Jesus was in fact the Messiah. I believe that He was, and that God allowed the Jews to profess unbelief. The Jews and the Romans did not agree on a source of authority to begin with. The High Priest wanted Jesus to be a sacrifice for the people. Roman authority was pressuring the Jews who were stirred up by the Spirit of the Living God. John 18:28-32=Then the Jews led Jesus from Caiaphas to the palace of the Roman governor. By now it was early morning, and to avoid ceremonial uncleanness the Jews did not enter the palace; they wanted to be able to eat the Passover. So Pilate came out to them and asked, "What charges are you bringing against this man?" "If he were not a criminal," they replied, "we would not have handed him over to you." Pilate said, "Take him yourselves and judge him by your own law." "But we have no right to execute anyone," the Jews objected. This happened so that the words Jesus had spoken indicating the kind of death he was going to die would be fulfilled. Yes. Prophecy was being fullfilled by their actions. Jesus knew what must happen. Like I said, Jesus knew what must happen. He became the eternal sacrifice for all men.

Thank you Phatboy,Let me try to break it down in English, I got a laconic mode of translation that has a tendence to short phrases, does like a laconism, or another kind of interlinguage.Nevertheless,Judged by the Jewish Law and then judged by the Roman Law as well?Access code:Jewish Law = meaning: The ancient Ishraelee Law which is given directly from the Higher Being, Law that is Law and not religion, not a cult, not the ancient statute of a religion (pharizeism) neither the statute of a religious cult - yudaism - who can't prononce neither spell the TRUE CONSONANT first letter, the non-vocalic first letter, of the Most Important Word of the Law (the sealed Verb), whose the lamb has told: "who got the understanding - Knowledge of the Truth [not a beliefs of the Truth] shall not omit the "Ge" neither the " ()". Translation that belongs to Vatican: "...shall not omit a J neither a "Any soul (or; blood) that says "...and then judged (simultaneously) by roman laws" is simultaneously saying:I - That Pontfice Pilatos has realized a roman judgment with a sentence and condemnation to death by roman law - according the point of wiew ot the High Priest: roman law - the swine law that belongs to an enemy invader, enemy of the Ishraelee Nation, enemy of the high priests autorithy, enemy of the total autorithy of the synedriums (Ishraelee Tribunal), the roman empire with its roman sword that have the form of a cross - the same cross that means "not malediction to the transgressors of Sanctified Law", but "Humiliation and forced subjection under the roman empire" - according the point of view of a Ishraelee High Priest.[would the high priest ask for a cross?]II - That Pilatos has determined a sentence of condemnation against the lamb.III - That Pilatos didn't want to follow the councel from the Higher Being, that was given to him by the dream of his wife.IV - That Pilatos didn't fear by listenig the voice of his wife, not even became more scared when the principals of the Priest (when they were asked about the cross) immediately replied:"WE HAVE A LAW, AND HE SHALL DIE ACCORDING TO OUR LAW, (where there's no cross...)"V - That Pilatos didn't wash his hands.VI - That the high priest didn't want to execute the original sentence to death fixing the lamb with chords (tied hands up high), suspended at an Ishraelee "wood" - condemnation to death determined by the True and Ancient Law, testified by Psalms and the books of the Prophets.VII - That to tie with chords the hands of the lamb suspended by an "Ishraelee wood" wouldn't be enough (for the fullfilling the SCRIPTURE OF THE TRUTH), therefore, also, wouldn't be enough for the restraint of the high priest, who (perhaps) gave up his authority, and gave up the sinedriums authority, just because he knew that only roman men had permission from roman empire to throw stones against any kind of "wood" and that only roman men could kill with their own hands.well,the seven above are,what is simultaneously saying,Any soul (or; blood) that says "...and then judged (simultaneously) by roman laws" .well,I might be movin to a next post soon.

I'll try to answer it.. not sure if this what you want."Did Pilatos to realize a judgment? Or, has Pilatos asked for a few answers only?"
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I think Pilatos, only asked few questions only."Did Pilatos to condemn the annointed lamb?"
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Pilatos, he didn't want to kill Jesus, he even suggest just to beat Jesus and let Him go.
(Luke)
23:14 Said unto them, Ye have brought this man unto me, as one that perverteth the people: and, behold, I, having examined [him] before you, have found no fault in this man touching those things whereof ye accuse him:
23:15 No, nor yet Herod: for I sent you to him; and, lo, nothing worthy of death is done unto him.
23:16 I will therefore chastise him, and release [him]."Should the lamb be judged by two trials?"
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I think it doesn't make any difference, Jesus had to die that time.. so even He judged by 10 trials He would say nothing and people would still say "crucify, crucify him"."Has Pontfice Pilatos determined (or; fixed) the cross, after the saying of the high priests, when the principles of the ishraelee priests have told "We have a Law, and he shall die according to our law (where there's no cross...)"?"
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I think the one who wanted or said about the cross was the crowd.
(Luke 23:21) But they cried, saying, Crucify [him], crucify him.
(John 19:15) But they shouted, "Take him away! Take him away! Crucify him!". "Shall I crucify your king?" Pilate asked. "We have no king but Caesar," the chief priests answered.Hope this help.PS: you mean the book you have, has different story about Pilatos?

Your efforts for the truth are also the amazing access door increasing the investigation to the permanence in the eternal words that I love.There is only one Truth.Vatican's Vulgate is "a version of the reality", not the real, not the unique.There's a laconic translation that comes to reunificate the ancient books called gospels as one.This message has been edited by Zsafira, 01-05-2005 16:36 AM

FIRST CHAOTIC ANSWER: Iesvs was judged by the secular government and no charges could be brought against Him.It's a chaotic answer that inserts the lie within the truth:The Truth: No charges could be brought against Him.
The Lie: Charges were not brought against HimOnce more The Truth: Charges were brought against Him. Iesvs(the Lamb called Gehav-oshuah) was judged by the Gewish PriestHood at synedrium and condemned to death, under the charge of blasphemy against the Kadhesh Tetragram GHVH/Gehaveh/the name I AM/Ge-I Haveh-AM, and it was made according to the Law given by the Most High to the Ishraelees.*******Zsafira

Re: Were two trials required?Render unto Caesar the things which are Caesar’s, and unto God the things that are God’s.

SECOND CHAOTIC ANSWER: They only gave in to the urges of the religious crowd to appease the Jewish minority.It's a chaotic answer that inserts the lie within the truth as well:The Truth: The High Priest didn't give in his authority nor anything and used his synedryum's authority to condemn to death.The Lie: That the High priests have sent Iesvs to Pilate to appease the Jewish minority.Once more The Truth: Pilate and his roman law were an invaders and to any Hebrew Synedryums Authority, "to submit under the laws of the enemy invader(Rome)" always represented "Humiliation and Submission before the enemy" , and the only reason for them high priests to carry Iesvs to Pilate was that before all nations only roman citizens could execute a death punishment, whether the death sentence was being according to the Ishraelee Law (which establish the tree) or roman law (which establish the cross) or according any other death instrument established by any nation, only the roman citizens(soldiers) could do that using their own hands, on behalf of any judicial system, but the citizens of the nations were not authorized by the Roman empire, to use their authority to execute a death sentence using their own hands.*******Zsafira