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Author | Topic: Did They Write About Jesus in the Law, the Prophets, and the Psalms? | |||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||
Faith  Suspended Member (Idle past 1465 days) Posts: 35298 From: Nevada, USA Joined: |
except that parthenos doesn't exactly mean virgin either. it means "young woman." See my Message 225 to ramoss. When a literal virgin is meant, parthenos is the word that is used. It also has other uses depending on context, but again, it is the word for a literal virgin when that is what is meant. {EDIT: My list was intended to show that it was NOT used in five out of seven of the Hebrew verses for the word "almah," and its having been used for the two shows its intention to refer to a literal virgin. In the case of Rebecca it follows a verse where her literal virginity is emphasized. This message has been edited by Faith, 04-29-2005 02:26 PM
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ramoss Member (Idle past 632 days) Posts: 3228 Joined: |
You didn't respond then about 'Parthenos'
Why was it used to denote Dinah AFTER she was raped in Genesis ??
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Faith  Suspended Member (Idle past 1465 days) Posts: 35298 From: Nevada, USA Joined: |
For the same reason it was used in all the other examples you gave that I answered. It doesn't always mean virgin as I've said many times. But when literal virgin is meant it is the word that is used.
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arachnophilia Member (Idle past 1364 days) Posts: 9069 From: god's waiting room Joined: |
EDIT: My list was intended to show that it was NOT used in five out of seven of the Hebrew verses for the word "almah," and its having been used for the two shows its intention to refer to a literal virgin. In the case of Rebecca it follows a verse where her literal virginity is emphasized. yes, i'm well aware of that. and that's the point i was combatting. "virgin" is not a correct rendering of almah. it was substituted i nthe case of rebecca because it was ok there -- the text indicates she's a virgin. but that's now what it actually says in hebrew for that specific word. nor does the context for isaiah 7:14 indicate any reason whatsoever for the word "virgin" to be used, except christian tradition. and this tradition is misplaced: the prophesy does not refer to jesus in any way. neither the 1917 jps nor the new one use "virgin" here. nor does the rsv. almah simply does not mean the woman has to be virgin, ever. not even in cases of "divine misinterpretation."
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Faith  Suspended Member (Idle past 1465 days) Posts: 35298 From: Nevada, USA Joined: |
Again you are arguing with Jewish translators from 200 years before Christ who knew what they were doing. And you are trusting post-Christian Jewish sources who have a vested interest in denying that "virgin" applies in Isaiah 7:14, and modern translations of the Bible are untrustworthy.
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ramoss Member (Idle past 632 days) Posts: 3228 Joined: |
Actually, I am not.
I am arguing that parthenos from the greek translations from 400 years before this Christ guy did not exclusively mean virgin. I held up the example of Dinah, and it being used for her after she was raped. Why did they refer to a woman who was raped if 'parthenos' means sexually pure? That is not the modern translation either. You are refusing to answer the point. You are also refusing to answer the point that other greek authors from outside the bible used 'parthenos' to refer to women who were not virgins. Why are you avoiding the issue? This message has been edited by ramoss, 04-29-2005 03:20 PM
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doctrbill Member (Idle past 2785 days) Posts: 1174 From: Eugene, Oregon, USA Joined: |
Faith writes: ... ALL the terms in question are ambiguous to some extent, including "parthenos," ... ... "parthenos" is the Greek word that is used when what is meant IS strictly a literal virgin. ... it is the word used when a literal virgin is meant though it may be used in other contexts too. You can't have it both ways. You cannot, on the one hand, have parthenos be "ambiguous" and "used in other contexts"AND, on the other hand, have it "strictly" meaning "literal virgin." Every language has an unequivocal expression indicating what you call "a literal virgin." But 'Almah,' 'Parthenos,' and 'Virgin' are not those terms. They are not unequivocal. I believe you have already agreed to that. Any discussion of the sexual status of the mother of God should be unequivocal. It should be clearer, more precise, and more to the point than that of anyone else, including: Rachel, or Dinah, or Rahab. BUT it is NOT. It is so obscure, so ambivalent, so dichotomous as to inspire two millenia of fierce debate leading to the rape, pillage and plunder of ones opponents. Good Grief! Where is the referee already? Theology is the science of Dominion. - - - My God is your god's Boss - - -
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doctrbill Member (Idle past 2785 days) Posts: 1174 From: Eugene, Oregon, USA Joined: |
Faith writes: modern translations of the Bible are untrustworthy. That's what many Jewish scholars said of the Septuagint when it was a modern translation. That, and they saw how it was misleading the masses. Theology is the science of Dominion. - - - My God is your god's Boss - - -
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doctrbill Member (Idle past 2785 days) Posts: 1174 From: Eugene, Oregon, USA Joined: |
Christians always squirm in the presence of Lions. db Theology is the science of Dominion. - - - My God is your god's Boss - - -
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gnojek Inactive Member |
quote: purpledawn writes: I think God was speaking of himself as their Redeemer. Hebrews 9:15 is definitely talking about Christ.
Faith writes:
Is that why God is a male?
not exactly a Jewish way of thinking, as it was a patriarchal society Faith writes: As for wounding the heel, etc., the nail that fixed Jesus' feet to the cross pierced His heels, but the phrase is symbolic in any case. The Messiah will not be mortally wounded by the snake, but a head wound, which the snake is to suffer, is likely to be a mortal wound. Jesus' death utterly destroyed the power of Satan on this earth over all who believe in Him. It's just a matter of time before He returns and the devil's jig is up forever. So much for the literal interpretation of Genesis. Sorry, this is from the first page or so, but all the rest of the 16 pages was just too much gory detail for me. Interesting thread though....
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arachnophilia Member (Idle past 1364 days) Posts: 9069 From: god's waiting room Joined: |
It doesn't always mean virgin as I've said many times. But when literal virgin is meant it is the word that is used. kind of fuzzy line, isn't it? it can mean virgin when you want it to, but not when you don't want it to. what make isaiah have to mean virgin then? here's all the parthenos in the septuagint, btw. (check if you like)
quote: quote: quote: quote: quote: quote: quote: quote: quote: quote: quote: quote: quote: quote: quote: quote: quote: now, let's look at how the septuagint renders almah and na'arah:
quote: quote: quote: quote: quote: quote: quote: and come to think of it, i won't post all the na'arah's because there's A LOT. none of which are translated "virgin" and only three of which are translated parthenos. notice the exceptionally small crossover of these lists? parthenos is NORMALLY used to denote a virgin. however, almah and na'arah are occasionally rendered parthenos for no particular reason, when there's nothing in the verse to signify virginity. this probably is because they got tired of always using the same word for a young woman. the crossover of the three is very small. in this case, it seems to indicate possibly an error in translation, or using the word in a different sense. but there is no substantial case to claim that parthenos should be rendered virgin in the modern sense, let alone that almah should be rendered parthenos. almah simply means "young woman." nothing more.
fixed an opening font tag - The Queen This message has been edited by AdminAsgara, 04-29-2005 04:26 PM
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arachnophilia Member (Idle past 1364 days) Posts: 9069 From: god's waiting room Joined: |
I held up the example of Dinah, and it being used for her after she was raped. Why did they refer to a woman who was raped if 'parthenos' means sexually pure? That is not the modern translation either. ramoss, your other points are probably valid, but the septuagint does not have "parthenos" here. i post every instance of it above. (and searching the septuagint is a real pain in the ass, mind you)
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arachnophilia Member (Idle past 1364 days) Posts: 9069 From: god's waiting room Joined: |
Again you are arguing with Jewish translators from 200 years before Christ who knew what they were doing yes, who didn't use parthenos to mean "virgin." lets try this backwards. almah doesn't mean virgin.they used parthenos for almah. therefor, parthenos can't mean virgin either. they did use parthenos for virgins, yes. and when it gets thrown into latin, parthenos becomes virgo, sure. but in HEBREW almah does not mean virgin. it means young woman. so either they didn't use parthenos to mean virgin, or they made a mistake. that happens sometimes. or, maybe, and here's a remote possibility that i will acknowlegde, the original had betulah. sometimes, we get some changes between the septuagint and masoretic. it happens. however, since parthenos is used twice in a row in a way where one should elaborate on the other, i doubt this is the case.
And you are trusting post-Christian Jewish sources who have a vested interest in denying that "virgin" applies in Isaiah 7:14, yeah, that's right. they changed their whole usage of a word just to piss off the christians. no, see, even if it DID say "virgin" it still wouldn't be about christ, since this would have happened during the reign of ahaz. the prophesy is about ahaz's war. it's fulfilled a few chapters later.
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purpledawn Member (Idle past 3478 days) Posts: 4453 From: Indiana Joined: |
Remembering that the actual word "virgin" did not exist in the OT.
So in Isaiah 7:14 we have the "almah" which means a young woman of marriageable age or newly married. "Almah" was then translated to the Greek "parthenos" which means a marriageable maiden or a woman who has not had sex with a man. In the Latin "almah" or "parthenos" was then translated with the word "virgo" which means an unmarried woman. Now when we look in Webster's at the word "virgin" we have:
virgin n. (OFr.- L. virgo a maiden) 1. a person, esp. a woman, who has not had sexual intercourse 2. an unmarried girl or woman Just because the word COULD mean a woman who has not had sex, doesn't mean that was the way it was used. So now you need to show that the context of the usage means a woman who has not had sex, because quite obviously the word used doesn't narrow it down as you claim. "The average man does not know what to do with this life, yet wants another one which lasts forever." --Anatole France
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purpledawn Member (Idle past 3478 days) Posts: 4453 From: Indiana Joined: |
quote:I agree, but the Book of Hebrews was not around during the ministry of Jesus and is not part of the documents mentioned in the OP. Isaiah 59:16 was speaking of God himself as the redeemer. "The average man does not know what to do with this life, yet wants another one which lasts forever." --Anatole France
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