The problem is summarized with the following question.
When God pronounces a prophecy, He:
1) "Sees" the future, without compelling the happenings to fit the prophetic model (highlighting his foreseeing capability) or..
2) He controls and guides all the happenings so they will fit the prophetic model (highlighting his almightiness capability).
Which of these models do you seem to apply to the Bible's God?
Well, the question seems addressed to all of us. It doesn't specify believers. Hence "Which of these models do you seem to apply to the Bible's God?" must needs be answered by some of us as, "neither".
I'd think the OP should specify who is supposed to answer the question but this doesn't. Something along the lines of "I'm asking those of you who are Christians and believe in the inerrancy of the Bible ...",
Or "I'm asking Jews and Christians ... ".
It's not clear what the implicit criteria the OP had and the default seems thus to be anyone reading the question.
lfen