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Author Topic:   Religious Fundamentalism and the Judicial System
anglagard
Member (Idle past 867 days)
Posts: 2339
From: Socorro, New Mexico USA
Joined: 03-18-2006


Message 1 of 17 (334710)
07-24-2006 2:13 AM


According to my understanding, the modern judicial system in stable democracies is ultimately based upon an ancient Greek concept formulated around 500 BCE, essentially that there are two sides to every story. Justice is rendered through using not just testimony, but also forensic evidence, and establishment of motive. Sentencing usually takes any past convictions into account.
According to religious fundamentalism, there is but one inerrant truth not subject to interpretation from any unauthorized personnel. The literal reading of the appropriate text is the sole determinant of truth and therefore justice.
It has recently been asserted that any religiously certified testimony concerning the past that is in agreement with the belief system of a consensus of fundamentalist authorities is the sole determinant of truth, that all physical evidence, undesirable testimony, and establishment of motive should automatically be discarded.
My understanding is that much of the world, even today, does not have a Western concept of justice, that there is the official version of the truth and there is the defendant who must prove their innocence to the religious and/or governmental authorities that are the representatives of the truth.
The idea of justice in Western civilization, which predates Christianity, depends upon a system where the truth is discovered rather than indisputably asserted, where different individuals regardless of identifiable characteristics are supposed to be equal before the law.
I believe the idea of using evidence, reason, and logic to discover the truth is what is done by non-fundamentalists both within and without the justice system. I believe that fundamentalism means the truth is already assumed, and that evidence, reason, and logic are considered acts of hubris, that the truth is an act of faith that is indisputable.
Since under such circumstances, the difference between revealed and discovered truth is a basic philosophy that seperates the fundamentalist from the rest of humanity, would this have an impact beyond science, education, and economics?
Do religious fundamentalists seek to change the Western concept of justice with one more compatible with a belief in revealed, rather than discovered truth?
Please disregard if previously covered. As usual, have no idea where this belongs.

Replies to this message:
 Message 3 by Discreet Label, posted 07-24-2006 10:17 AM anglagard has replied

  
anglagard
Member (Idle past 867 days)
Posts: 2339
From: Socorro, New Mexico USA
Joined: 03-18-2006


Message 4 of 17 (336170)
07-28-2006 7:03 PM
Reply to: Message 3 by Discreet Label
07-24-2006 10:17 AM


Clarifications
quote:
Couldn't say but frankly, fundamentalism suffocates reason, logic, objectivity and evidence. So it probably could destroy western justice on anything not preached in the bible.
My concern in starting this thread was that arguments used to trash science are exactly the same arguments that may be used to trash modern justice. These arguments include:
1. The truth of any belief system has already been determined by the select and can't be changed.
2. The select interpretation of events is infallible.
3. A specific set of ancient books are the final arbiter of all knowledge.
4. Testimony of select individuals is the only truth.
5. Physical evidence that contradicts predetermined truth by the select is to be discarded.
6. Guilt and/or innocence is predetermined, not subject to change, and solely the province of the acceptable deity.
If observed reality is solely based upon testimony of the appropriate individuals, regardless of any testimony of the inappropriate individual, or based upon physical evidence, then wouldn't the justice system, as a subset of that observed reality, be subject to the same criteria?
Under the principle of unchangability of the law, how can there be adaptation to new circumstances? How could a judge rule on something not covered in the infallible text? Things like stem cells, traffic codes? pollution? drugs? patents? copyrights? etc...ad infinitum.
Under the principle of infallibility and unchangability of interpretation of the law, how can any verdict be appealed?
Under the principle of testimony of individuals as sole evidence, how does one judge between conflicting testimony? Would it be based upon interviews where fervor of appropriate religious beliefs determines who is telling the truth? Could the truth be extracted from inappropriate individuals through physical persuasion?
Under the principle of discarding all physical evidence, would that not include bloody clothes, exact caliber matches, tireprints, etc. in addition to DNA evidence?
Under the principle that the deity has already predetermined guilt, is the purpose of the court to discover the will of the deity rather than the sequence of events? Could the will of the deity be discovered through historic methods such as trial by combat? drowning? hot irons in the hand?
If science is to be based upon medieval principles, will medieval justice be far behind?
For everyone, please feel free to tell me what a judicial system that, consistent with the fundamentalist principles concerning observation of reality, would be like under the principles of fundamentalist religion.
Also, as a person with an obvious bias against fundametalism, would any representative of that system like to correct my potential misperceptions?

This message is a reply to:
 Message 3 by Discreet Label, posted 07-24-2006 10:17 AM Discreet Label has not replied

Replies to this message:
 Message 5 by macaroniandcheese, posted 07-28-2006 7:14 PM anglagard has not replied
 Message 9 by Faith, posted 07-30-2006 1:28 AM anglagard has replied

  
anglagard
Member (Idle past 867 days)
Posts: 2339
From: Socorro, New Mexico USA
Joined: 03-18-2006


Message 15 of 17 (337063)
07-31-2006 9:17 PM
Reply to: Message 9 by Faith
07-30-2006 1:28 AM


Further Clarifications
The idea I am trying to get across is that there is a methodology to religious belief, to scientific, and to judicial systems.
The methodology of the modern judicial system is to examine the scene of the crime, to gather physical evidence, to create a hypothesis of what occurred, and to determine the primary actors. The incident is then brought to trial where the physical evidence is evaluated, the primary actors testify as to their interpretation of events, testimony of principal actors are elicited, competing hypothesis of reality including potential motives are evaluated, then a verdict is rendered.
In trials by jury, one is supposed to be judged by their peers. Such peers are supposed to be free of prejudicial bias and be able to understand the communicated testimony to be able to render a just verdict.
In the methodology of modern science, one examines the observed phenomena, gathers physical evidence, creates a hypothesis which explains what has occured/is occuring, compares such a hypothesis to primary authorities in the field (literature review, which usually happens at an earlier stage). Then the hypothesis, physical evidence, supporting observations, and documentation are submitted for publication before a board/jury of peers who are supposed to be free of prejudicial bias and be expert enough in the given field of inquiry to be able to render a verdict resembling truth. The hypothesis is then subject to continuous testing in order to replicate results and/or falsify the theory.
Do you see the similarity between modern judicial procedures and modern scientific procedures? The largest difference appears to me that court judgements may be appealed a discrete number of times while scientific theories are subject to continuous examination and judgment.
As to the methodology of modern religious belief systems, there is a lot of varience, however for purposes of this argument, I would like to focus on the fundamentalist viewpoint of textural literalism and inerrency as opposed to less fundamentalist systems.
As best I can tell, the methodology of the fundamentalist religious belief system means taking a given text as literal and inerrent. All examination of phenomena must fit the text, any hypothesis concerning phenomena contrary to the text is discarded. All physical evidence is subordinate to the text, therefore any physical evidence that may contradict the inerrent text is discarded or interpreted as supporting the text regardless of how much convolution of interpretation is required. There are no peers, no evaluation, no discussion, only assertion based upon the literal reading of the inerrent text. The judgment of reality is thus rendered.
Do you see the difference between modern judicial and scientific methodology and fundamentalist religious methodology?
I have served in juries twice, the first time was a combined DWI, reckless driving, open container trial. In the trial, the arresting officer testified the driver was speeding down the interstate, lost control, and then skidded off the asphalt and through a pasture for hundreds of feet. Upon exiting the vehicle the defendent was disoriented. The defendant testified he was not drunk. No physical evidence was shown, it was the officer's word against the defendant.
When we deliberated, four said not guilty because the officer failed to provide results from a breathilyzer or blood test common in such incidents, therefore it was simply the matter of one person's word against another, and therefore under the ideal of presumed innocent until proven guilty the defendant was not guilty of DWI. The argument swayed the fifth juror within five minutes but the sixth held out for conviction. Her argument was that she hated people who drove under the influence, therefore anyone accused of such a crime was guilty because to do less was to support such behavior. It took several hours for the five of us to convince the sixth that accusation does not equal proof, that the officer could have easily administered tests to provide colobarating evidence, and therefore it was a matter of one person's word against another. The verdict was innocent of DWI and open container but guilty of reckless driving.
Months later I met the officer at the local bar, and apologised for not being able to render a verdict in his favor but that it could not be done without colloborating evidence because of the presumed innocent clause. He replied that we should have ruled in his favor as he was a policeman and the defendent was not, therefore his testimony was true and defendants was false.
Under a fundamentalist judicial system, would the presumption of innocence disappear? Would the testimony of an authority figure be more trustworthy than that of an ordinary citizen? Would the verdict be known before the trial began, the purpose of the trial being solely to bring forth testimony and evidence to support the predetermined verdict?
This is the way the justice system works in many nations outside of the USA, now and in the past. Authority figures are always right, verdicts are predetermined, showcase trials are used to bolster the case of the state not to aid the accused, and the presumption is one of guilt, not innocence.
Some fundamentalists appear unwilling to compatementalize their faith-based system of literalism and inerrency and argue that science should change its methodology to fit fundamentalist methodology. Since they obviously are against the methodology of science, are they not also against the very similar methodology of the modern justice system?

This message is a reply to:
 Message 9 by Faith, posted 07-30-2006 1:28 AM Faith has not replied

  
anglagard
Member (Idle past 867 days)
Posts: 2339
From: Socorro, New Mexico USA
Joined: 03-18-2006


Message 16 of 17 (337069)
07-31-2006 9:32 PM
Reply to: Message 13 by Faith
07-31-2006 1:27 AM


A Few Minor Corrections
There WAS no civilization in Europe proper when the Roman Empire fell. What are you talking about? In 400 AD Europe was nothing but a bunch of tribes, Franks and Goths and Celts and so on. I gather Spain had been more civilized by the Roman Empire than other parts of Europe in those early years though.
Had you used 500 AD, the assertion would have been better, but still not entirely accurate. Remember, the Romans did not leave Britain until 410 AD. Also, as I have stated before, the Western Roman Empire fell in 476 AD, the Eastern Roman (Byzantine) Empire did not fall until 1453 AD. The Byzantine Empire held part of Europe, particularly modern Greece for hundreds of years after the fall of the Western Roman Empire, and indeed even preserved some classical works independent of the Islamic Empire. In fact, under Justinian, in the 500s, the Byzantines held most of Italy.
Of course this is basically off topic, I just want to set the historic record straight.

This message is a reply to:
 Message 13 by Faith, posted 07-31-2006 1:27 AM Faith has not replied

  
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