The Bible has no contradictions

Yeah, I know. Thanks I guess.

Consirator writes: . I already responded to you and stated why I couldn't respond to them already.

If by 'them' you mean the other posters who have asked questions then I must have missed your answer to this one. Can you please direct me to your answer or give me an answer.

Conspirator writes: "Bring forth" simply means to come to life.

You have got to be joking? How the **** do you get 'come to life' from 'bring forth'?

This I have got to hear.

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He hoped and prayed that there wasn't an afterlife. Then he realized there was a contradiction involved here and merely hoped that there wasn't an afterlife.
- Douglas Adams, The Hitch Hiker's Guide to the Galaxy

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Saved by an incredible Grace.

[This message has been edited by funkmasterfreaky, 03-18-2003]

I have no idea what upset you, given that your last message contains nothing except your tag line (after your edit).

What was it about what I said that upset you?

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He hoped and prayed that there wasn't an afterlife. Then he realized there was a contradiction involved here and merely hoped that there wasn't an afterlife.
- Douglas Adams, The Hitch Hiker's Guide to the Galaxy

I was just mad about the aarogance, in the tone of posters in this thread and others. Discussions seem almost futile. Sorry, I forgot to take the mad face off the post. It wasn't anything that was said that made me mad it was how it was said. But I guess I'm just being judgemental now, and probably a hypocrite. Anyways my apologies for the angry face.

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Saved by an incredible Grace.

Hi Funky,

FunkMasterFreaky writes: I was just mad about the aarogance, in the tone of posters in this thread and others.

How posts from evolutionists are perceived by Creationists is something I can only guess at. Half the moderators here are Creationists, but they've been a little silent lately and may be too busy right now to check in on things. If you send some email to Evc Forum Administrator describing what I'm missing I'll see if there's anything I can do. No promises, though, since I can't know a priori what you're going to tell me.

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--EvC Forum Administrator

funkmasterfreaky writes: I was just mad about the aarogance, in the tone of posters in this thread and others. Discussions seem almost futile.

I do not mean to seem arrogant. I apologize if sometimes my frustration and amazement with regard to some assersions made adversly affect the tone of my posts.

funkmasterfreaky writes: Sorry, I forgot to take the mad face off the post. It wasn't anything that was said that made me mad it was how it was said. But I guess I'm just being judgemental now, and probably a hypocrite. Anyways my apologies for the angry face.

We all make mistakes. I should not have let Conspirator's tone get the better of me, for that I again apologize, to everyone, including Conspirator.

I would however still like him to answer my question.

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He hoped and prayed that there wasn't an afterlife. Then he realized there was a contradiction involved here and merely hoped that there wasn't an afterlife.
- Douglas Adams, The Hitch Hiker's Guide to the Galaxy

But my question was about the timing of the crucifiction and the last supper, not about how the Jews and Romans differeed in their measuring of days.

In Matthew, Mark, and Luke, the last supper is a passover meal, but in John, Jesus is crucified before passover.

If you read John carefully, you will see that all of the important elements of the narrative are there; Jesus washing his disciples' feet, and the prediction of the disciple who would betray him to the Romans.

However, then the following line appears, emphasis mine:

John 13:29
For some of them thought, because Judas had the bag, that Jesus had said unto him, Buy those things that we have need of against the feast; or, that he should give something to the poor."

The "feast" he is talking about is the Passover feast, as is mentioned in the first line of chapter 13.

There is more:

John 19:14
And it was the preparation of the passover, and about the sixth hour: and he saith unto the Jews, Behold your King!

John 19:31
The Jews therefore, because it was the preparation, that the bodies should not remain upon the cross on the sabbath day, (for that sabbath day was an high day,) besought Pilate that their legs might be broken, and that they might be taken away.

John 19:42
There laid they Jesus therefore because of the Jews' preparation day; for the sepulchre was nigh at hand.

See, in the above passages, Passover had not happened yet, but in all of the other gospels, the last supper is a Passover meal.

Here is a line from Matthew's version of the last supper which states that it is a Passover meal:

Mat 26:19
And the disciples did as Jesus had appointed them; and they made ready the passover.

Right after this line, he sits down with the twelve and tells them that one of them will betray him, etc, etc.

This is a pretty big contradiction, don't you think?

Many Biblical scholars belive that the reason the timing of the crucifiction was changed in John was because it was clear by this point that Jesus wasn't a military leader who would be coming back to vanquish all of the Jews' foes, so he was being reformed as a spiritual, symbolic Passover sacrifice. It works better, then, if Jesus is killed before Passover rather than after, so John changed it.

[This message has been edited by schrafinator, 03-19-2003]

Bilebelt said:

Conspirator
I have a number of Bible contradictions I would like answers to I will give you one at a time

In Matthew 12:40 Jesus states, “For as Jonas was three days and three nights in the whale’s belly so shall the Son of Man be three days and three nights in the heart of the earth.” Mark 15:42-45 says that Jesus died on a Friday afternoon, and Mark 16:9 tells us that he left the tomb sometime on Saturday night or Sunday morning. That’s not three days and three nights.
Judge:
Hi there biblebelt. You will find that Friday is not actually mentioned in the gospels. The confusion araises because although all Saturdays were sabbaths, sabbaths occurred on other holy days as well.
This happened during the feast of unleavened bread.

So when the gospels refer to a sabbath day around the time of the crucifixion we must be careful to establish whether it was a weekly sabbath (Saturday) or a special sabbath.
If we read John 19:31 we see that the sabbath referred to there was not the weekly sabbath, but an high day.

I tend toward the view that Jesus was crucified on a wednesday, with the thursday being a special sabbath day associated with the FULB.
Thus by Sunday it could be said that three days had passed since Jesus was crucified. Those three being Thursday Friday and Saturday.
The Aramaic reading of Luke (on the raod to Emmaus) tells us that "three days have passed since these things happened" whilst the greek transaltion reads "it is the third day"
I believe the Aramaic version is primary here.

A site dealing with a wed crucifixion is here...
http://www.redbay.com/ekklesia/3daynite.htm

[This message has been edited by judge, 03-19-2003]

Just keepin' it alive...

Consspirator, where art thou?

I've not been able to get on a computer in 3 days... Anyway, yeah, I'll have to see if that contradiction has an answer.

Thanks for getting back to me. I'll be patient.

bump

Maybe he is still looking for that Bible that has no contradictions!

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Remembering events that never happened is a dangerous thing!