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Author Topic:   Politcally Correct Christ
Hyroglyphx
Inactive Member


Message 1 of 301 (346247)
09-03-2006 2:08 PM


There have been a number of subtle attacks on the divinity of Christ throughout the ages, however, in recent times it seems that the best way to undermine Jesus is just to invent ones' own cushy version of the Bible. Few instances better illustrate the point than a recent translation offered by the Oxford University Press's release of a "culturally sensitive" version of the Bible. This comes to me from a back issue of "Neewsweek," that cleverly quips such poignant comments as:
"Readers who find the Bible sexist, racist, elitist and insensitive to the physically challened, take heart. Oxford University Press's new "inclusive language version" of the New Testament and Pslams has cleaned up God's act. In this version, God is no longer "Father" and Jesus is no longer the "Son." The hierarchical title of "Lord" is excised as an archaic wy to address God. Nor does God (male pronouns for the deity have been abolished) rulle a "kingdom"; as the editors explain, the word has a "blatant androcentric and patriachal character." Even God's "right hand" has been amputated in deference to the left-handed. Some examples:
  • In the majestic opening of John's Gospel, "the glory he has from the Father as the only Son of the Father becomes "the glory as of a parents only child." (John 1:14)
  • The Lord's Prayer now begins like this: "Father-Mother, hallowed be your name. May your dominion come." (Luke 11:2)
  • Jesus' own self-understanding as God's only son is generalized to: "No one knows the Child except the Father-Mother; and no one knows the Father-Mother except the Child." (Matthew 11:27
  • Avoiding another traditional phrase, "Son of Man," the Oxford text reads: "Then they will see 'the Human One' coming out of the clouds with great power and glory." (Mark 13:26) -Kenneth L. Woodward, "Religion: God Gets the Ho-Ho," Newsweek, Sept 11, 1995
    The editors don't claim that Jesus spoke in a gender-neutral language, but they obviously feel as though He should. You know, one is tempted to ask the Oxford University Press if they would dare tamper with or so implicitly demean the Qur'an in this way. Perhaps they know they only backlash they will recieve with Christians is a stern talking to as opposed to some of the more color actions taken by certain Muslims.
    Does anyone think that it is appropriate to change the meaning of the text in order to be 'sensitive' to the readers feelings or should anyone wanting to read the Bible take it for its face value?

    “"All science, even the divine science, is a sublime detective story. Only it is not set to detect why a man is dead; but the darker secret of why he is alive." ”G. K. Chesterton

  • Replies to this message:
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    Hyroglyphx
    Inactive Member


    Message 9 of 301 (346411)
    09-04-2006 11:18 AM
    Reply to: Message 3 by ReverendDG
    09-04-2006 8:26 AM


    Sensitivity training
    I think these days people tend to view everything in light of insane streaching of PC and inclusiveness. some sensitivity is good but this new bible is insanity
    I agree on both parts. Yes, I think everyone needs to make a concerted effort to understand different cultures and to learn the views taken by people's all over the world. There is much benefit in that. However, any text that claims holiness, including but not limited to, the Bible, the Vedas, the Qur'an, any teaching by Buddha, etc, should be exempt from tampering. Its sacrilege no matter how you spin it. The Word means what it says and says what it means. But this push in the West for sensitivity training has been going on now for a good 15 years steadily.
    even though i am not a christian, i agree with you, this is stupid and ruins the whole idea of christian beliefs.
    Yeah, I know you think Christianity is archaic and looking from the outside in I understand your view, perhaps more than some atheist/agnostics could ever believe, but yes, this is a bit much.
    I mean son of man to the human one? or changing john 1:14, thats just scary to do this, it undermines the authors views of god and jesus now thats a new one father-mother? who says that? only ratical feminists seem to call god her
    Well, the Divinci Code spins the yarn that the early Church was out to eradicate the matriarchal notion of female pagan deities so that it could institute its own patriarchal rule. This, of course, is pushing the boundaries of reality because the Tanakh (Old Test) came thousands of years before and so ascribes male attributes to Yahweh long before there ever was anything known as a 'Church.' But its been said that the Shekina glory of God expresses feminine attributes. I don't ascribe to an athropomorphic God, however, changing the text is just, no.
    changing everything in the bible not to offend some people is just silly when the bible is an archaic text with lots of stuff we view as sexist and wrong, but to butcher it because you don't like it is just blasphemy! i consider this along with anyone chopping up and reinterperating any ancient texts, that includes the way creationists do this as well
    Well, that's just it. If someone wants to view the Bible as sexist or misogynistic or whatever other denunciations they feel are expressed within the text, then simply don't believe in it. But to change the Word in an attempt, I guess, to trick people into liking it better is something demeaning to the atheists who don't like it for a reason. I believe in miracels. The miracle in this case is that the translators hands were not at once palsied for their blasphemy.

    “"All science, even the divine science, is a sublime detective story. Only it is not set to detect why a man is dead; but the darker secret of why he is alive." ”G. K. Chesterton

    This message is a reply to:
     Message 3 by ReverendDG, posted 09-04-2006 8:26 AM ReverendDG has replied

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    Hyroglyphx
    Inactive Member


    Message 11 of 301 (346417)
    09-04-2006 11:34 AM
    Reply to: Message 4 by Modulous
    09-04-2006 8:35 AM


    Not so new
    The Inclusive New Testament was published over a decade ago (and your reviews are from about the same time) so 'recent' is a little loose (unless we mean 'compared with the original manuscripts').
    Yeah, I realized that this issue of Newsweek is 11 years old, so that obviosuly negates the Inclusive NT being new as well. I shouldn't have said the 'recent' translation.
    Oxford Press didn't write or translate the work, they just published it (according to your sources, though I can't find any confirmation of it). Would they publish a similar translation of the Qur'an? I don't know. Somebody kinda has.
    If an entire country can be firebombed over one man's cartoons, something tells me that whoever would dare to alter the Qur'an would looking down the barrel of a horde of angry Muslims. Nobody would be so bold. That was my point. Only the Word of YHWH is considered refuse.
    Of course, it depends if the meaning of the text is necessarily changed. And that depends on what the individual feels is the meaning of the text.
    You think Father means Father-Mother and you think the Son of Man means the Human One? There is no interpretation of the actual words that comes out of someone's mouth. You can interpret the underscores and overtones of their words, but not the word's the themselves. If Jesus literally said, "Father, I praise You for you have hidden these from the wise and learned and revealed them to little children," then that's what He said. That's what a quote is. Now, if you wantd to interpret that in some bizarre way, that's on the reader, but don't misquote someone because it might hurt somebodies feelings. No one seems to care if its insensitive to have spoofs about Jesus. Such a dichotomy.
    Edited by AdminPhat, : fixed quote

    “"All science, even the divine science, is a sublime detective story. Only it is not set to detect why a man is dead; but the darker secret of why he is alive." ”G. K. Chesterton

    This message is a reply to:
     Message 4 by Modulous, posted 09-04-2006 8:35 AM Modulous has replied

    Replies to this message:
     Message 14 by Modulous, posted 09-04-2006 11:55 AM Hyroglyphx has not replied
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    Hyroglyphx
    Inactive Member


    Message 16 of 301 (346427)
    09-04-2006 12:07 PM
    Reply to: Message 8 by Phat
    09-04-2006 11:12 AM


    Re: Is it just another book?
    Sure. Its a free country, and perhaps many people would actually prefer the newer version. The Bible is just a book---its not an object of worship. Personally, I have no use for (the all inclusive translation), but interpretations of anything are poetic license. The more that the fundies get up in arms over it, the more copies it will sell!
    The physical book of the Bible is just ink on pages, this much is true. But what is contained in a certain order is information. And its the information that offers any value. Just like a hard drive is just a piece plastic, but on the other hand carries all of this information. We don't worship the Bible, in a a sense of it being an effigy or an idol, however, we worship the information because the Word is God and God is the Word. To be sure:
    In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God. The same was in the beginning with God. All things were made by him; and without him was not any thing made that was made. In him was life; and the life was the light of men. And the light shines in darkness; and the darkness could not comprehend it.

    “"All science, even the divine science, is a sublime detective story. Only it is not set to detect why a man is dead; but the darker secret of why he is alive." ”G. K. Chesterton

    This message is a reply to:
     Message 8 by Phat, posted 09-04-2006 11:12 AM Phat has not replied

    Hyroglyphx
    Inactive Member


    Message 18 of 301 (346436)
    09-04-2006 12:26 PM
    Reply to: Message 13 by crashfrog
    09-04-2006 11:46 AM


    The Difference between
    Did you have a big bitch-fit when they translated the Bible into Latin, or into English? Don't you think they used their own judgement then, as well, in regards to the final wording used in the text?
    No, I didn't and this is why: Translations don't change the meaning of a word. If I in Spanish told you that the word 'gato' means cat in English, I'd be right and I would not change the meaning of a word. If I told you that it meant dog-cat to be sensitive to dog lovers, I'd be espousing a lie and changing the definition of a word. The English language has many synonyms to use a plethora, a surplus, an overabundance of differnt words that mean the same things. That's the difference. Father doesn't mean mother and father isn't synoymous with parent. And to be sure that it doesn't mean the same thing, if it did, there would have been no use in changing the definition because it would have been evident to everyone in the first place.
    It's just another translation.
    No, this is a mistranslation.
    King James had it translated into the English spoken in his time, this isn't any different. Nobody's gonna force you to read it, and somehow, I suspect that this Bible isn't going to make Christians hate gays and atheists any less, or whatever apocalyptic consequences of tolerance you're quaking in your boots about.
    Its not a matter of forcing me to read it. Its a matter of some impressionable young person investigating the scriptures and is going to be confused on what the Word says or means. Its not for my benefit its for others who don't know any better. As for Christians hating gays and atheists, I guess it would counterproductive to spend time trying to reach them if they actually hated them. Do you feel sufficiently martyred now?

    “"All science, even the divine science, is a sublime detective story. Only it is not set to detect why a man is dead; but the darker secret of why he is alive." ”G. K. Chesterton

    This message is a reply to:
     Message 13 by crashfrog, posted 09-04-2006 11:46 AM crashfrog has replied

    Replies to this message:
     Message 19 by crashfrog, posted 09-04-2006 1:22 PM Hyroglyphx has replied

    Hyroglyphx
    Inactive Member


    Message 24 of 301 (346463)
    09-04-2006 2:33 PM
    Reply to: Message 19 by crashfrog
    09-04-2006 1:22 PM


    Re: On translation
    Of course they do. Meanings change in every translation, because writing isn't simply a matter of stringing together words with precise, discreet meanings. Any human writing neccessarily includes things like idiom and connotation - percieved meanings that are familiar to native speakers because of their shared experience with the language. You've never heard the phrase "lost in translation"? What did you think that meant?
    Some languages may have more precise meanings for certain, such as in the Greek, there are five descriptives terms for the word, "love," whereas the English language only has one word to describe it. Same thing in Inuit as it has upwards of 20 different words to describe snow. But if you think that the word Father couldve secretly meant Mother, you're going to have to go back through the lexicon to show that. Now, I would agree that some words lose their direct meanings occasionally, but those are usually with descriptive verbs or adjectives, not with nouns or pronouns. Its kind of hard to mistranslate Father, unless there was some slang introduced into the vernacular. As well, its one thing to make the mistake of translating a word with an incorrect usage, but its entirely another matter when someone intentionally changes the translation to suit an agenda.
    That's just one example of what can be lost in translation; of how concepts that are easily encapsulated in the words of one langauge can only be grossly approximated in the words of another. I mean it took a pretty long paragraph for me to explain a reference in English that any native speaker of French would have percieved immediately. How can you assert that translation is simply a matter of word substitution?
    Because we look at the word, the context its being used in, and its relation to what it conveys. In fact, I have several Bibles and the most recent translation is from a Jewish and scholar who translated the Complete Jewish Bible. His rendering is almost identical to that of the King James Bible. He only substitutes European names with their traditional Hebrew names, such as Jesus = Yeshua, Paul = Sha'ul, John = Yohana, Isaiah = Yeshayahu, Simon = Shimon, Jonah = Yonah, Moses =Moshe, etc.
    Well, Paul uses the greek word "arsenkoites" in Corinthinans.
    Which verse(s)? I'd like to look that up in Strong's Complete Concordance.
    Nowhere, right? Because there are shades of meaning to plain words. Scholars of greek see the root "koitai" used in other contexts, some completly normal - referring to couches or beds - and in other context, as synonyms for sex or prostitution. If I used the term "bedwoman" or "couch-girl", you might understand that I'm saying "prostitute" in a really oblique way. So too does Paul seem to be referring to men whose profession is sex with men, which was a common duty of temple acolytes for certain deities in Greece at the time. Temple prostitution was a very common practice, for both men and women, and it was one that Paul was adamant should not be a part of the early Church.
    Paul's words most likely is not invented, it was probably common slang in Greek in those days. And that's what I meant earlier when I said that nouns tend to be free from that kind of cryptic rendering. Couch-women was most likely slang for a prostitute, as you've shared. But beyond that I can't offer a further explanation until I know where it refers to couch-(wo)men.
    King James writers, however, chose to render that word as "homosexual", apparently percieving Paul to be condemning a practice that was essentially unknown in the ancient world.
    If the writer was speaking about homosexuality then there should be no qualms with this. Calling somone a "Human One" when it says "Son of Man", this is a large departure from the original translation. If Paul intended for the reader to understand male and female prostitution, then that's what he intended.
    In Hebrew, though? The thing is - the Hebrew word for "father" was often used in a gender-neutral sense*, much as some people use "man" in a gender-neutral sense to try to describe both male and female humans. So, "father" could mean "parent" - in Hebrew. Do you see how that could pose an issue in translation? That simply transliterating from "father" in Hebrew to "father" in English means sacrificing a potential alternate meaning of the word as it was used in Hebrew?
    No it isn't. The word used is "Abba," which is a very endearing term for someone's father. It denotes a little kid calling their father, "Daddy." Abba is not gender-neutral.
    How does what you're talking about change the meaning? How is the core experience of Christianity altered if they aren't raised to believe that God has a big cosmic penis? And if he doesn't have Godly male genitals, what's the justification for asserting maleness when maleness may not have been implied by the original text?
    I don't believe God is a male or a female simply because I don't believe He has any physical feature. I think all of His descriptions concerning Himself have Him explaning things in physical terms because that's what we are, physical beings. As for His using male terms in self-descriptions, I believe He is illustrating where man recieves his gnosis. Just as is it says in the Scriptures, a man's desire will be for His God and the women's desire will be after her husband.

    “"All science, even the divine science, is a sublime detective story. Only it is not set to detect why a man is dead; but the darker secret of why he is alive." ”G. K. Chesterton

    This message is a reply to:
     Message 19 by crashfrog, posted 09-04-2006 1:22 PM crashfrog has replied

    Replies to this message:
     Message 25 by Phat, posted 09-04-2006 3:28 PM Hyroglyphx has replied
     Message 27 by arachnophilia, posted 09-04-2006 4:13 PM Hyroglyphx has replied
     Message 58 by crashfrog, posted 09-05-2006 8:20 PM Hyroglyphx has replied

    Hyroglyphx
    Inactive Member


    Message 29 of 301 (346486)
    09-04-2006 4:18 PM
    Reply to: Message 25 by Phat
    09-04-2006 3:28 PM


    Re: On translation
    I would argue that it depersonalizes Christ. The whole point is to personalize Him! (Not her, by the way)
    This is an even better argument than I made. You're absolutely right.
    I don't believe God is a male or a female simply because I don't believe He has any physical feature.
    If you are referring to God the Father, I agree.
    Yes, as far as God the Father I don't believe He is male or female. These descriptions, I believe, are about God to help us understand that which has no physical personhood or at least not the need of a physical personhood. I mean, if God exists certainly there is so much we could not fathom about Him. I must we describe that which is transcendant? I believe God ascribed Himself in a certain way for our benefit and for understanding.
    The counter-argument to all of this is that nobody really knows for certain how God establishes realationship to humanity. As a Believer, I believe that God finds us---we do not find Him. (and yes...I am comfortable using the gender of Him to refer to God.
    This has some disturbing implications for me. If God finds us that implies that He never knew who we were and it implies that certain are "lucky" enough to get a chance for His salvation. I believe that God has offered eternal life to anyone and that He imparts certain 'pangs and feelings of longing' in the hearts of men to compel them to seek Him. However, if by chance you mean that the only way for us to understand God comes only by His own power to reveal Himself, I would agree with that statement.
    Gal 3:28-29-- There is neither Jew nor Greek, slave nor free, male nor female, for you are all one in Christ Jesus.
    Does that mean that In Christ I should not consider myself as a male? I suppose that I AM His Bride, after all!
    That verse speaks about how God doesn't show preferential treatment based on race, gender, nationality, etc. God is an equal opportunity employer. :smile: Here in the world of finite dimension you are a male or a female and it all serves its purpose. Are we going to be male and female in heaven? I doubt it based on what Jesus said told us. He said to the scribes asking Him about marriage:
    "For in the resurrection they will neither marry, nor will they be given in marriage, but will be like the angels in heaven." -Matthew 22:30
    I disagree with Kreeft for many reasons. This one verse brings that into disrepute, as Kreeft is placing too much emphasis on the mechanical aspects of sex rather than the spirutual attributes it was designed to hone. That sounds notoriously Mormon theologically with its "spirit babies."

    “"All science, even the divine science, is a sublime detective story. Only it is not set to detect why a man is dead; but the darker secret of why he is alive." ”G. K. Chesterton

    This message is a reply to:
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    Hyroglyphx
    Inactive Member


    Message 30 of 301 (346487)
    09-04-2006 4:20 PM
    Reply to: Message 27 by arachnophilia
    09-04-2006 4:13 PM


    Re: On translation
    hebrew/aramaic is not a gender-neutral language. everything has a gender. for point of reference, though, a group composed of one man and one woman are grammatically male.
    Tell this to Crashfrog. It sounds like you and I are in agreement.

    This message is a reply to:
     Message 27 by arachnophilia, posted 09-04-2006 4:13 PM arachnophilia has replied

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    Hyroglyphx
    Inactive Member


    Message 47 of 301 (346646)
    09-05-2006 11:19 AM
    Reply to: Message 31 by arachnophilia
    09-04-2006 4:46 PM


    Re: On translation
    no, it's used in other (non-christian) texts of the period.
    quote:The first is from the Apology of Aristides, chapters 9 and 13. It relates the myth of Zeus, and his relationship with the mortal boy Ganymede. In the story, we are told that the myth is evidence that Greek gods act with moixeia (adultery) and arsenokoites. Similarly, in Hippolytus' Refutatio chapter 5, we are told the story of the evil angel Naas, and how he committed adultery with Adam in the Garden, which is how arsenokoites came into the world. Hippolytus then compares this story with that of Zeus and Ganymede [Petersen, 284]. In both of these stories an aggressor forcibly takes advantage of a weaker individual.
    arsenokoites does mean homosexuality, but a very particular kind: pederasty. as far as i know, there simply was no common practice of two adult males engaged in a consentual relationship in the ancient greek world. but there was a very common custom of older men taking in younger boys as apprentices and lovers. paul is likely advising against this. (though i have no problem with paul being a homophobe. he also trashes the effeminate.)
    Scholars of greek see the root "koitai" used in other contexts, some completly normal - referring to couches or beds - and in other context, as synonyms for sex or prostitution.
    This is a fascinating piece and one is able to quickly realize that Paul was selected for very specific reasons. Paul was a devout Jew learned in the Halacha under the tutelage of Gamaliel, a very respected Pharisee of his day in Jewish jurisprudence. As well, he was well versed in the Greek language and the Hellenistic culture. Lastly, he was a Roman citizen and understood Roman law and culture. And as far as "arsenokoites" meaning Greek pederasty, I have no reason to doubt it based on the culture of that era. I've read a few articles concerning this and all about the subtle rules with it.
    In Hebrew, though? The thing is - the Hebrew word for "father" was often used in a gender-neutral sense*, much as some people use "man" in a gender-neutral sense to try to describe both male and female humans. So, "father" could mean "parent" - in Hebrew. Do you see how that could pose an issue in translation? That simply transliterating from "father" in Hebrew to "father" in English means sacrificing a potential alternate meaning of the word as it was used in Hebrew?
    (aba) means "father," a singular male parent.
    (ima) means "mother," a singular female parent.
    (horah or horeh) means "parent," also singular, and the gender depends on the vowels. the plural is:
    (horim), or "parents." groups of both genders take the masculine plural. but only in plural.
    How is that you use Abba to mean a singular male parent and then give three other descriptions, one succinctly female, the other gender-neutral, only to say that Abba is gender-neutral? That doesn't make much sense to me. If Abba is really an ambiguous term then how is that all Hebrew speakers instantly recognize that you are talking about a father?
    (adam), more correctly, means "man" as in "mankind" not a singular male. though it is also the name of the first member of mankind. though it's wrong to assume that "mankind" applies to women -- the bible is NOT a feminist text, and women are not given their fair share. adam and eve are refered to as "man(kind) and his woman." while the story starts of with eve being adam's equal, the language is quite in line with the patriarchal society that spoke it.
    According to Josephus, the original literal name for the meaning of Adam has come to be known as man, but literally means, 'One who is red.'
    "God took dust from the ground, and formed man, and inserted in him a spirit and a soul. This man was called Adam, which in the Hebrew tongue signifies one that is red, because he was formed out of red earth, compounded together; for of that kind is virgin and true earth. -Flavius Josephus
    there is a female presence of god in the torah too, that resides in the holiest of holies. And if he doesn't have Godly male genitals, what's the justification for asserting maleness when maleness may not have been implied by the original text?
    As I've shared elsewhere my beliefs concerning God is that He is not a physical being, however, He is the creator of all material as well as the creator of masculinity and femininity.
    so, if god were of an indeterminant gender (either androgynous, incompatible with our understanding, or just unknown) he would be refered to in the masculine. which might have been what you were meaning to get at.
    Obviously a gender role transcends mere physicality. My manhood extends well beyond the possession of a penis just as any woman's womanhood extends far beyond her possession of a vagina. The impartation of masculine and feminine traits are the dual roles in symbiosis given us by God to express what God is.
    But none of this is the point of my post. This is a side issue. I don't mind discussing it lightly but I'd like the topic to steer back into the direction of questioning the motives of the translators and to figure out what, if any, implications they have.
    Edited by nemesis_juggernaut, : typo

    “"All science, even the divine science, is a sublime detective story. Only it is not set to detect why a man is dead; but the darker secret of why he is alive." ”G. K. Chesterton

    This message is a reply to:
     Message 31 by arachnophilia, posted 09-04-2006 4:46 PM arachnophilia has replied

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    Hyroglyphx
    Inactive Member


    Message 48 of 301 (346649)
    09-05-2006 11:32 AM
    Reply to: Message 34 by arachnophilia
    09-04-2006 5:01 PM


    Re: son of man
    while i agree that most of these are silly, this one's actually close to being right:
    quote:# Avoiding another traditional phrase, "Son of Man," the Oxford text reads: "Then they will see 'the Human One' coming out of the clouds with great power and glory." (Mark 13:26)
    the phrase in hebrew is ‘- (ben-adam), but mark quotes daniel 7:13, written in aramaic. the phrase used there is ‘ (ki-bar enash). (man) comes from (enosh, mankind/mortal), which in turn comes from (anash) which means sick, frail, or weak.
    the phrase, "son of man" here and in ezekiel is god's particular way of referring to his prophet, or perhaps the prophet himself being humble (equivalent to "your humble narrator" in english). idiomatically, it means "lowly mortal" but that tends to lose the sense of prophecy, self-identification, and the (post-ezekiel) messianich connotation it seems to have gained.
    Yes, I'm familiar with Ke-Bar-Enash in Aramaic, and yes, most certainly Yeshua adopted the terminology from Ezekiel and Daniel. One of the aspects most talked about concerning Jesus is His divnity, however, sometimes the least discussed was His humanity. Jesus wanted it to be known that the keys of heaven rest within His hands, but at the same time, that He was a man of frailty and subject to the same temptations that we are faced with. He wanted us to know these two aspects about Him. Whether the Human One and the Son of Man aren't synonymous or not really isn't the point. The Scriptures say what they say and if Daniel, Ezekiel, and Jesus used this terminology, what purpose does it serve to change it? The only time a translation is made is to accomodate a different language or to update to the most recent style of that language. As long as it doesn't lose the original meaning, all should be okay. That's why 'thy' can be changed to 'my' and 'thine' to 'mine,' without changing the defintion or the meaning of the original. My objection has more to do with the motivation.

    “"All science, even the divine science, is a sublime detective story. Only it is not set to detect why a man is dead; but the darker secret of why he is alive." ”G. K. Chesterton

    This message is a reply to:
     Message 34 by arachnophilia, posted 09-04-2006 5:01 PM arachnophilia has replied

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    Hyroglyphx
    Inactive Member


    Message 49 of 301 (346707)
    09-05-2006 2:45 PM
    Reply to: Message 46 by Phat
    09-05-2006 9:03 AM


    Re: The Epic
    There is a Christian youth minister by the name of Fred Lynch. He recently made a hip hop version of the Gospel of John that has many critics and many more supporters.
    This doesn't bother me at all. One, he isn't offering this as a translation, he is appealing to the youth of today by using today's vernacular in order to point them to the actual gospel. Nothing wrong with that. His artistic rendition is no different than me giving you a brief synopsis on the chapter. Now, if Lynch decided to print this as the actual gospel I would have a big problem with it.

    “"All science, even the divine science, is a sublime detective story. Only it is not set to detect why a man is dead; but the darker secret of why he is alive." ”G. K. Chesterton

    This message is a reply to:
     Message 46 by Phat, posted 09-05-2006 9:03 AM Phat has not replied

    Replies to this message:
     Message 50 by ringo, posted 09-05-2006 4:30 PM Hyroglyphx has replied

    Hyroglyphx
    Inactive Member


    Message 51 of 301 (346774)
    09-05-2006 6:01 PM
    Reply to: Message 50 by ringo
    09-05-2006 4:30 PM


    Re: The Epic
    Isn't "the actual gospel" the message behind the words, not the words themselves?
    If the "original" Hebrew and Greek can be translated into English, why not into hip-hop?
    Okay..... The Hip-Hop Bible it is. I don't envy the translator.

    "There is not in all America a more dangerous trait than the deification of mere smartness unaccompanied by any sense of moral responsibility." -Theodore Roosevelt

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     Message 50 by ringo, posted 09-05-2006 4:30 PM ringo has not replied

    Hyroglyphx
    Inactive Member


    Message 65 of 301 (346857)
    09-05-2006 10:16 PM
    Reply to: Message 58 by crashfrog
    09-05-2006 8:20 PM


    Re: On translation
    quote:
    Because we look at the word, the context its being used in, and its relation to what it conveys.
    Do you think those things are easy to do? Trivial? How do you understand the context without speaking the language? And what if the context isn't translatable, either? I mean, if anything, percieving context requires even more familiarity with idiom than simple transliteration does.
    It wouldn't be an easy thing for us at all, however, if you have a Hebrew and English scholar who is well versed in both languages and somebody that understands the timeframe this is more than possible. Translating the Bible is no easy task, this much is true. It takes a meticulous attention to detail.
    So, men don't desire their wives and women have no interest in faith? Does that really seem true to you? Sorry, off-topic. But maybe this translation is simply to correct the parts of the Bible that simply don't make any sense?
    Well, that's not entirely what it means. It means God has predispositioned women and men a certain way in accordance with their masculinity or feminity. Its speaking about submission, but not in the way you might automatically find yourself associating with. Submission here means honoring and that is a give take situation, just as it says in Ephesians. Anyway, I found a decent article on the subject, however, yes its a bit OT so we probably shouldn't spend much time on it. In any case, I hope it gets my point across. Link

    "There is not in all America a more dangerous trait than the deification of mere smartness unaccompanied by any sense of moral responsibility." -Theodore Roosevelt

    This message is a reply to:
     Message 58 by crashfrog, posted 09-05-2006 8:20 PM crashfrog has replied

    Replies to this message:
     Message 67 by crashfrog, posted 09-06-2006 11:47 AM Hyroglyphx has replied

    Hyroglyphx
    Inactive Member


    Message 68 of 301 (346972)
    09-06-2006 12:50 PM
    Reply to: Message 67 by crashfrog
    09-06-2006 11:47 AM


    Re: On translation
    And you think every such scholar is going to come to the exact same conclusions about context?
    No, however the differences are subtle and essentially do not change the definitions of words. Its just the Webster's and Oxford dictionaries. They are disimlar only marignally. But all of this misses the point. Father doesn't mean Father-Mother. It just doesn't. That's just hype for the sake of the overly sensitive.
    We don't even see that in our language, NJ. Even native speakers of English disagree about what a given utterance might mean. The entire legal profession is based on those disagreements.
    No one is in disagreement on what Mom or Dad means. You say Mom, you mean a female parent. You say Dad, you mean a male parent. There is no ambiguity.
    The idea that translation is a simple matter, where everyone who attempts it arrives at the same result, is absurd.
    Everyone should arrive at the same result. That's why we have Dictionaries in the first place. Its to establish a concise rendering for all English speakers, or Spanish speakers, or Russian speakers to learn from. Imagine the tumult and chaos that would ensue if we just started changing the meaning of words.
    Then why doesn't it say "honoring", if that's what it means? If you have to tell me that the word used means something different than what a reader would naturally assume that it means, isn't that basically proof that translation isn't nearly as easy as you make it out to be? That it's always a large part about the personal judgement of the individual translator?
    Because the word 'submission' has come to mean something that it never intended. Its come to mean a negative aspect instead of one about honor and respect. And this is the problem with changing words to mean whatever somebody wants it to mean.

    "There is not in all America a more dangerous trait than the deification of mere smartness unaccompanied by any sense of moral responsibility." -Theodore Roosevelt

    This message is a reply to:
     Message 67 by crashfrog, posted 09-06-2006 11:47 AM crashfrog has replied

    Replies to this message:
     Message 69 by crashfrog, posted 09-06-2006 12:56 PM Hyroglyphx has replied

    Hyroglyphx
    Inactive Member


    Message 70 of 301 (346993)
    09-06-2006 2:36 PM
    Reply to: Message 69 by crashfrog
    09-06-2006 12:56 PM


    Re: On translation
    How do you explain this? Translators are all idiots and if they only did it your way, they'd all get the same result?
    The translations are the same. The only disimilarity is them using different synonyms. Nobody is changing the meaning of the text, except Oxford University Press.
    Look at the word, NJ. "Sub-mission." "sub", as in "under". To be under someone else. Synonym - inferior.
    What I'm saying is that it doesn't have to have a negative connotation. That's all in your mind. If you have a boss, you are inferior to him. Does that means you are less of a person than him? No, it means that he's in charge and that's all that it means. Its only someone that has aspirations to be in charge themselves that assigns or engenders some negative aspect to it.
    It does not have the original meaning that you ascribe to it. That's just something you're making up right now, to make a statement in the Bible more palatable. You don't believe that the Bible says that women are inferior to men, so you're changing the translation to be more like what you already believe.
    The Bible says that the man is to be the head of the house, this is true. That doesn't mean women are inferior as in they are stupid or incapable. It means that God gave man the responsibility to oversee the matters of the home, not that he absolute tyrranical reign over his wife. Think of it another context. A parent is superior to their children right? Do you see that as being negative? A man being the head of the house was never intended for him to always be right on matters. It doesn't mean that he gets all the say. To the contrary. Mutual submission is required by both parties for a helathy marriage and family. It was desinged according to the strength's and weaknesses that God bestows on males and females. It also doesn't mean that the wife has no say in the affairs of the home. Here's what the Word says:
    " Submit to one another out of reverence for Christ. Wives, submit to your husbands as to the Lord. For the husband is the head of the wife as Christ is the head of the church, his body, of which he is the Savior. Now as the church submits to Christ, so also wives should submit to their husbands in everything. Husbands, love your wives, just as Christ loved the church and gave himself up for her to make her holy, cleansing her by the washing with water through the word, and to present her to himself as a radiant church, without stain or wrinkle or any other blemish, but holy and blameless. In this same way, husbands ought to love their wives as their own bodies. He who loves his wife loves himself. After all, no one ever hated his own body, but he feeds and cares for it, just as Christ does the church- for we are members of his body. 'For this reason a man will leave his father and mother and be united to his wife, and the two will become one flesh.' This is a profound mystery but I am talking about Christ and the church. However, each one of you also must love his wife as he loves himself, and the wife must respect her husband." -Ephesians 5:21-33

    "There is not in all America a more dangerous trait than the deification of mere smartness unaccompanied by any sense of moral responsibility." -Theodore Roosevelt

    This message is a reply to:
     Message 69 by crashfrog, posted 09-06-2006 12:56 PM crashfrog has replied

    Replies to this message:
     Message 71 by crashfrog, posted 09-06-2006 3:25 PM Hyroglyphx has replied
     Message 74 by ringo, posted 09-06-2006 3:59 PM Hyroglyphx has not replied

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