The question was about how YEC scientists explain the
emergence of different human 'races' given the
time-frame available in the Bible.
In this context your response is meaningless.
The point, I feel, that was being made was that for the
best evidence+interpretation in contempory science
suggests that we have 70-80,000 years to develop
such differences.
The relatively small variation amongst humans compared to other
species is more likely caused by the greater prevalance of
inter-breeding in human populations ... what other organisms
do you know that can count ancestors across the whole of europe,
and in some cases asia and africa too?