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Author Topic:   The Unacknowledged Accuracy of Genesis 1
arachnophilia
Member (Idle past 1362 days)
Posts: 9069
From: god's waiting room
Joined: 05-21-2004


Message 82 of 302 (367209)
11-30-2006 10:11 PM
Reply to: Message 80 by zaron
11-30-2006 4:18 PM


grammar
Next issue is the seemingly mistranslated word "was" in Genesis 1:2
"And the earth "was" without form and void;..."
the hebrew word for "was" here is "hayah", meaning "became". It is translated "became" 67 times; "becamest", "came", and "came to pass", 505 times; "become" 66 times and "come to pass" 131 times; and "be" in the sense of "become".
If this should prove to be true, then Genesis 1:2 should read "And the earth became, or came to be, without form and void."
people make this point here all the time. it's still wrong. let me (again) show you why.
from your comment, it is evident that you are using, or rather misusing a concordance. to say that hayah is translated "become" or "became" a number of times is accurate, but not entirely accurate. translations are not a 1:1 sort of thing. it may be, for instance, that there's actually a more complex phrase or usage that is not represented by the root words alone, and it just happens that the word for "was" is in the same place as the english word "become." and so it gets counted. as you will see, this is exactly what happens some of the time.
should we look at root words alone, as i'm sure you are doing, we would see the text like this:
quote:
Genesis 2:7

adam hayah chay nefesh
man became living soul
it doesn't read very well in english, but it reads like crap in hebrew. but we might see hayah being rendered "became" and think that's what it means. let's look at what the text actually says, shall we?
quote:
, —
v'yehey ha-adam l'nefesh chayah
and-was the-man to-soul alive.
and the man became a living soul
in this passage, the lamed prefix ("to-") indicates the change. that's the "come" part of "become." hayah (in this case imperitive?) is the "be" part.
there are a few other usages. in many, many instances, the future cases of hayah are rendered as "become" in king james english, simply because it flows better than "will be." that's how "become" was used then. in other cases, it's used to present a transitional sense where none exists in the story. ie: lot's wife. the hebrew says she turned around, and she was a pillar of salt. "became" is used in english because to present a transition that is only implied in the text. lot's wife was clearly not salt before.
but we are given no prior condition of the earth. and the default, literal translation of hayah is "was." it's a very, very common word in hebrew, and 90% of the time it's used it's a past-tense passive verb. there is nothing in genesis 1 to suggest anything else, and if the idea of change is present, it's because the earth did not exist before that point.
in all of the above usages, "was" or "is" or "will be" work just fine, but they sound a little strange.
To further support this idea consider the following:
the word "and" is used 148 times in Gen. chapter 1 through 2 to separate the 102 recorded independent acts of God.
and is a common prefix (not a separate word) and is used at the beginning of the majority of sentances in the bible.
"Let" defined
"Let" is used 13 times in chapter 1. 1,464 times elsewhere, and in no case is an original creative act implied. The sense is "made appear" or "made visible" expressing permission and purpose in connection with already existing things.
"let" is from the imperitive of the above word, hayah. for instance:
quote:
Genesis 1:3
—, ; -
v'yo-amar elohim yehey or, v'yehey or
and said god, "be light," and-was light
and god said "let there be light" and there was light.
really, "let" or "let there be" is god saying "exist!" again, case and usage and context matters. "become" wouldn't work very well here, would it?
There are more to discuss like definition of "firmament"
from the verb meaning "to pound" as a metalsmith does to harden and strengthen a metal object. implies strength -- a solid object.


This message is a reply to:
 Message 80 by zaron, posted 11-30-2006 4:18 PM zaron has not replied

arachnophilia
Member (Idle past 1362 days)
Posts: 9069
From: god's waiting room
Joined: 05-21-2004


Message 83 of 302 (367213)
11-30-2006 10:24 PM
Reply to: Message 70 by DrJones*
11-26-2006 6:49 PM


Re: Religion and Truth.
Arach is really the guy for this but I believe he's posted that the hebrew had a word for "ball" at the time of the writing of genesis. If they knew that the earth was a sphere why didn't they use the word for ball?
well, there's two modern words that would have worked well:
sferah, but i think that's form the english "sphere."
kidur, for "ball," possibly used in isaiah 22:18 to mean "like a ball" or maybe more accurately "like a heap." i'm not entirely sure that the ancient hebrews had a word for something shaped like a sphere, because it's not a shape they'd encounter much.
but their depiction of the earth is definitally flat for a number of other reasons...


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Replies to this message:
 Message 88 by zaron, posted 12-23-2006 10:47 PM arachnophilia has replied

arachnophilia
Member (Idle past 1362 days)
Posts: 9069
From: god's waiting room
Joined: 05-21-2004


Message 90 of 302 (372118)
12-25-2006 12:59 AM
Reply to: Message 88 by zaron
12-23-2006 10:47 PM


Re: Religion and Truth.
could you possibly direct me to that which has given you this notion?
I'm interested in knowing if you don't mind and if it's not too off topic.
i suppose it is marginally on-topic, but we have had whole threads devoted to flat-vs-round earth depictions in the bible. i was going to go into a long explanation, but i can see we've already been over a good portion of it in this very thread -- short of walking you through the creation story in genesis verse by verse and explaining what exactly it's talking about.
really, anyone who tells you that genesis is accurate to modern scientific knowledge has an agenda, hasn't bothered to read and think about genesis 1 carefully, or is just plain in denial.
if one reads the bible without preconceptions, the depiction is rather plain. the world is created from a great ocean. a pocket of air is formed by the creation of a solid object (the sky). the water below this collects and reveals land. sun and moon and stars are placed on this solid sky. we are not being given a depiction of the universe consistent with modern cosmology, with the earth as a spheroid object in an insignificant corner of the universe. we are being told the earth is the center (everything is made in preparation for man), and that everything outside of our own atmosphere is water. and there is nothing else. the earth does not seem to be round at all, because the earth is not a planet. it is simply land that becomes evident when the waters recede. there does not even seem to be a word for "planet" in biblical hebrew.
this whole story is almost word for word the sumerian depiction of the universe (which looks like an inside-out snow-dome), and identical to every other levantine religion's cosmology, and even similar to the egyptian idea of the universe (minus all of these objects being gods).


This message is a reply to:
 Message 88 by zaron, posted 12-23-2006 10:47 PM zaron has replied

Replies to this message:
 Message 91 by zaron, posted 12-25-2006 2:03 AM arachnophilia has replied

arachnophilia
Member (Idle past 1362 days)
Posts: 9069
From: god's waiting room
Joined: 05-21-2004


Message 92 of 302 (372142)
12-25-2006 2:40 AM
Reply to: Message 91 by zaron
12-25-2006 2:03 AM


Re: Religion and Truth.
I have questions for everything and you seem to be just the right guy to ask!
well, not for everything. i promise you there is a lot i do not know.
I have some ideas and other scriptures that shed light on the conclusions that you have concerning Genesis.
i have seen a lot of apologetic stuff concerning this, and it's a rather tricky case to defend when you get into "that's not what this word means" vs "well that's what the authors must have meant since they didn't have words for that." what it comes down to, imho, is the difference between a straightforwards and careful reading of the text, pitted against an attempt to jam the text into something vaguely resembling reality. literal, vs distortionary interpretations.
I think the Bible should agree with itself concerning truth, but concerning matters like this, I'm starting to see that it probably wasn't given for those purposes.
i don't think the bible has to agree, and there are instances were it very plainly does not, even on matters of great importance. the thing is that it is a very human text, and there are hundreds of sets of fingerprints all over it, and as many if not more voices to be heard in it. and real life is complicated and difficult and not always consistent. we should expect debate and subtlety and contradiction.
if it was one consistent little rulebook on how to live our lives, direct from god, it would be FAR less interesting, and meaningful, and valuable. it would tell us far less about ourselves. it would be like cutting it down to just the ten commandments -- what would the bible be without the 23rd psalm? or the 22nd? or song of songs? or job?
Happy holidays, (if they pertain to your custom)if not, then, happy day!
merry christmas to you as well.


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Replies to this message:
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arachnophilia
Member (Idle past 1362 days)
Posts: 9069
From: god's waiting room
Joined: 05-21-2004


Message 96 of 302 (373322)
01-01-2007 12:48 AM
Reply to: Message 94 by Nimrod
12-29-2006 1:55 AM


Re: Religion and Truth.
i would be happy to debate this and your other post in the appropriate thread, which might be this one.

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arachnophilia
Member (Idle past 1362 days)
Posts: 9069
From: god's waiting room
Joined: 05-21-2004


Message 101 of 302 (382270)
02-03-2007 11:22 PM
Reply to: Message 98 by MacCullock
02-03-2007 1:13 PM


Re: Read the Bible as obviously as possible
When God discusses the six days specifically, He mentions nothing about creating any part of heaven or earth (Gen 1:31, Gen 2:1, Gen 2:4b, Exodus 20:11).
on the contrary, heaven is created on day two. it did not exist before then. its function is to separate waters above from waters below. you could argue that land existed before day three, but for all intents and purposes, that's when it was created.
"in the beginning" (or sometimes "at the start of...") is clearly just an openner.
The word translated as "in the beginning" is used many other places for unspecified time introducing a new period of activity, such as in Jeremiah 28:1 and 49:34 about the beginning of some king's reigns (courtesy of BlueletterBible.org's Concordance "C" button).
at least one newer translation renders as "at the beginning of." for instance, the new jps has "when god began to create..." the trick actually works because the first-person-singular present and past tenses of verbs are identical in hebrew.
simply means "first" or "beginning" or "front." a starting place. literally, we can render the text to say "at the start of god creating the skies and the ground, the ground was without shape and empty... " etc.
What every other Bible calls "the first day", the NASB calls "one day" not "the first" day.
actually, it probably should say "first day." not because of anything you are getting at, but for another reason. the other five days you have bolded are literal translations of the hebrew names for the days of the week. sunday would be not , although the difference isn't important. you still start counting at "one."
It is my assumption this should be read as if God is not referring to five specific consecutive 24 hour days, but rather five consecutive series of days, with each series (except the first) being of unmentioned length and each series represented by one day of the seven-day week God is trying to teach us about here (see Exodus 20:11 again).
i don't see any reason to think that. each day strongly implies a length; 1 evening, and 1 morning. it's a week, plain and simple.
The "and it was so" of Gen 1:24 means God accomplished that land creatures reproduced their kind in the most obvious way, requiring at least months of normal time like it does today.
the animals are not reproducing here. the earth is producing them.
I assume God calls the final day of the six "the sixth day" because that is when everything came to completion for His purposes. "The sixth" could also be specific because God has one specific day in mind representing the entire period, or because He actually did complete all that in one twenty-four hour day.
the hebrew is identical to the other days, all of which lack the ha- prefix, or "the." in this case, "the" was most likely added by translators.
The Hebrew word translated as "day" is "yom" which is a word for a period of activity or daylight that can be many days or years, or just an hour.
no. has a few meanings, dependent on usage. there are four distinct usages of the word, all with specific meanings.
  1. the period of daylight, ~12 hrs. contrasted with night.
    quote:
    Gen 1:5 And God called the light Day, and the darkness he called Night...
  2. 1 day, 24 hrs. both daytime and nighttime.
    quote:
    Gen 1:5 ...And the evening and the morning were the first day.
  3. "year," idiomatic usage in genealogies.
    quote:
    Gen 5:4 And the days of Adam after he had begotten Seth were eight hundred years: and he begat sons and daughters:
  4. specific idiom: "in the day." open-ended, referring to a larger sense of time, but specific and relating usually to causality. can be translated "when."
    quote:
    Gen 2:17 But of the tree of the knowledge of good and evil, thou shalt not eat of it: for in the day that thou eatest thereof thou shalt surely die.
interchanging usages is unacceptable. they are distinct, and somewhat obvious. we use "day" the same way in modern english -- ironically probably due to biblical influence. the key is to not over-thinking it too much. it means what it plainly and obviously means on the first read-through.
The word "yom" is also used in Gen 2:4 referring to the entire six yoms when God made heaven and earth complete.
yamim is the plural of yom. and that's b'yom, "in the day that..." see above. it's actually a fluke that this is not a point of contradiction, as just about everything else in two stories contradict. they are two completely separate tales.
WHY WAS IT DARK ON "ONE DAY"?
If God created the sun in the beginning, why is it dark at the start of "one day"?
the sun is not created until wednesday. it should be obvious from this blunder that you are not really paying very close attention to the text, which is incompatible with your view. the heavens were not created before day one, and the sun was not part of those heavens when they were created.
Plainly the earth was constructed after the morning stars,
"morning stars" seem to be mythological entities, something like the sons of god.
then the sea burst forth,
actually, it makes reference to god enclosing the sea. that's one day two, with the creation of heaven. heaven is a dome that confines the seas -- both the ones on the flat earth, and the one in the sky. knowing something about ancient near-eastern cosmology, and actually paying attention for it in genesis 1 really clears this whole bit up.
THE FIRMAMENT.
The usual interpretation of forming the firmament is simply that the thick clouds above the water separated from the seas. This formed the sky under clouds and above the sea, which could be described from the surface as like an upside down bowl (a partial sphere) in shape.
the word implies strength, solidity, and flatness. it's a metal working term. the traditional sumerian idea is a copper dome, but many jewish sources have it as being created out of the waters themselves, in ice. some have glass.
PLANTS BEFORE SUNLIGHT?
Energy from sunlight reaches the surface of the earth even when it is cloudy, so there is no contradiction in claiming that land vegetation was produced after the day/night cycle was observable and before the sun itself could be discerned as a body in the heavens. Nor is there any need for a extra-scriptural miraculous source of light and energy God does not mention (a common sin of the YEC's).
the sun is not formed before day four. make from that what you will. i cannot say where the light comes from, as the text does not say either. but wherever it is coming from is NOT the sun.
WHEN ANIMAL LIFE BEGAN.
As for when many kinds of animal life began, God is not specific. About sea and land creatures God is mentioning only those with the "breath of life" in them, presumably air-breathers
"breath" is more idiomatic than that. the concept is closer to a "soul" or "spirit." when god breathes into us, we become alive. our souls are made of god's soul.
This means God does not say when fish, bacteria, molluscs, insects, or earthworms began, nor whether they were created from nothing or more primitive types of creatures.
quote:
21 And God created the great sea-monsters, and every living creature that creepeth, wherewith the waters swarmed,
quote:
24 And God said: 'Let the earth bring forth the living creature after its kind, cattle, and creeping thing, and beast of the earth after its kind.' And it was so.
"creeping things" tend to include insects and whatnot.
quote:
Lev 11:21 Yet these may ye eat of every flying creeping thing that goeth upon all four, which have legs above their feet, to leap withal upon the earth;
Lev 11:22 Even these of them ye may eat; the locust after his kind, and the bald locust after his kind, and the beetle after his kind, and the grasshopper after his kind
locusts, beetles, grasshoppers = (flying) creeping things.
TOPIC - Please read Admin Message 102 before responding to this post.
AdminPD
Edited by arachnophilia, : No reason given.
Edited by AdminPD, : Warning


This message is a reply to:
 Message 98 by MacCullock, posted 02-03-2007 1:13 PM MacCullock has replied

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arachnophilia
Member (Idle past 1362 days)
Posts: 9069
From: god's waiting room
Joined: 05-21-2004


Message 108 of 302 (382481)
02-04-2007 11:08 PM
Reply to: Message 103 by MacCullock
02-04-2007 12:00 PM


Re: Read the Bible as obviously as possible
My goal is to get to an "obvious" interpretation of Genesis one which is informed by what God's creation has told us through science
the problem i see with this is rather obvious. using science to reinterpret genesis as backing science -- "unacknowledged accuracy" etc -- is circular. genesis means what it means, regardless of any relationship to reality. if it backs up what we know today, you can argue that it is accurate. if it does not, you can't simply change it around so that it is. that's not honest.
What is between the waters above and below was MADE on the second day from pre-existing clouds and atmosphere.
that's not what the text says. you can't say that these verses are talking about a DIFFERENT heaven, as your view would insist.
quote:
1 In the beginning God created the heaven...
quote:
6 And God said: 'Let there be a firmament in the midst of the waters, and let it divide the waters from the waters.'
8 And God called the firmament Heaven.
the first and the second are clearly the same -- and the creation of the earth is described on the next day. this makes your interpretation untennable.
What is between the waters above and below was MADE on the second day from pre-existing clouds and atmosphere. If you have a cite saying something was "created" (other than the three kinds of living things) during the six days please show it to us. Please remember "create", at least in Genesis' early chapters is always a translation of the Hebrew "bara" which means a divine creation from nothing.
as for made vs created, they are very close to synonymous. "created" can mean ex-nihilo, or is generally interpretted that way, yes. really, they refer to different foci of attention. "made" emphasizes physical creation (generally by hand), and "created" emphasizes intellectual design. genesis 1 is a more lofty idea of god, genesis 2 portrays him as a hands-on kind of guy. see:
quote:
Isa 43:7
for I have created (baratiu) him for my glory,
I have formed (yatsartiu) him;
yea, I have made (asitiu) him.
same basic idea, different emphasis. this is really a common oec-gap-theorist canard, and one that really makes little sense in ANY language. the translation is a good one: the reflect the same emphasis and connotation in english, and are NOT mutually exclusive. again, you're over thinking it -- it means the same in english. please see this thread.
Your disagreement may be about what "heaven" means in Genesis 1:1. The Hebrew "twot" can mean either the sky or the visible universe as this concordance ref shows.
"twot" stands for theological wordbook of the old testament. it's a bible dictionary. conversely, a concordance is NOT a dictionary and should never be used as one. entries reflecting translations are not usage-specific, and can be misleading for people inexperienced with the language.
in any case, the hebrew word is shamim, which is literally derived from the word for "waters," mayim. i trust you can see the similarity there, and this is to be expected. heaven is the object that divides the waters.
If that is your disagreement, it is probably based upon the fact that in Gen 1:8 God does name what He made on the second day the same as what He creates in the beginning, but as always with Hebrew the context is VERY significant. For those who may not know, Biblical Hebrew has EXTREMELY few words,
this is highly inaccurate. biblical hebrew has MANY words. it does not have as many as english, because it did not take in as many words from as many other languages, but the vocabulary is quite large. as i point out to buzsaw somewhat recently, they have at least four words for "but, nevertheless, although," etc.
people who make points about context when they have already shown that they know nothing about context or even grammar are generally trying to distort meaning by interchanging usages. there is no good textual reason to assume that one "heaven" and the other "heaven" are any different.
just read it plainly, in english. the structure makes sense as it is. don't mess about in hebrew unless you actually know some.
and it is more of a struggle than one might expect to get ONE "obvious" translation which makes sense.
there are two possible renderings of genesis 1:1.
quote:
‘, ‘ —, , .
b'reishit bara elohim et-ha-shamim v'et-ha-eretz/
in-beginning create/created god (d.o)-the-skies and-(d.o.)-the land.
because the third person singular verb cases are the same for past and present tense, we can thus render the verse as either:
quote:
in the beginning, god created the skies and the land
or:
quote:
at the beginning of god creating the skies and the land
that's the ambiguity of the translation there. and that's the extent of it. one of the possible translations refutes your idea. the other isn't exactly a strong case for it.
That struggle is surely a deliberate part of God's plan, since God not only commands us to be discerning, but to be deep into understanding what He says. I believe that is why He has personally confirmed so many scriptures to me, because that is what I try to do.
when you pretend that the bible is sufficiently vague, it's easy to confirm just about anything. this is what i suspect you are attempting to do, as is anyone who talks about "unacknowledged accuracy" of genesis 1. clearly, the text is NOT accurate, and talking about vagueries and difficulties in translations is one way to disguise that inaccuracy.
but suppose for a second that you speak biblical hebrew, and live in 600 bce jerusalem. is there any difficulty in translation? no, there is not. you know what it means. the bible is NOT vague. it's actually quite specific -- that "context" you talked about above is actually one of the things that help make it so. i can't tell you how many fundamentalist quotemines are defeated by context that limits or specifies a verse they have ripped out of the text.
The context here includes the fact that Hebrew term "the heavens and the earth" is a dualism (like "good and evil", "body and soul", or "day and night") always used to mean the entire universe [ed 02-04]. If that is what the Bible translators rely on, it would make sense if Gen 1:1 "heaven" is always translated as non-earth astronomical bodies, and Gen 1:8 "heaven" modified by "firmament" is always translated as sky.
the levantine cosmology consisted of a flat earth, and a domed sky. that was the entire universe. to read anything else is anachronistic. and yes, "heaven and earth" is a common dualism. it represents the entire universe because, to the ancient hebrews, all they knew of the universe as "sky" and "ground." yet they both have to be created, don't they? "day and night" is another common dualism, as you mention. day is created, isn't it? and its creation defines night. similar, heaven is created, and its creation allows the definition of land.
Here is BlueLetterBible.org for Gen 1. By clicking the "C" for 1:1,
tell me from my above translation whether or not you think this argument should impress me.
I think of this as God creating what is ABOVE the sky from nothing in 1:1 and making the sky itself from existing clouds and atmosphere in Gen 1:7.
there is only water above the sky.
Can there be any other obvious interpretation of this?
yes. the first verse is an introduction, or dependent clause, depending on how you parse the grammar. it merely signifies that this is the beginning of god's creative act. there is simply no logical reason to separate this verse from the rest of the text.
It seems doubtful such other obvious translation would be consistent with what God's creation has told us through science. Please help us out here.
rather, it would be surprising if it WAS consistent. it's a 2600 year old story, strongly reminiscent of the babylonian creation myth, and every other creation myth in the levantine and sumerian regions of the world. if your generalized version of it is correct, so is the enuma elish. they generalize about the same way, only one has seven gods where the other has one.
Just for good measure, here is how to see every major English translation for Gen 1:1-9 at BibleGateway.com.
does it look like i need translations? and it's not every major translation. there are a number that are still under copyright. for instance, the new jps i mentioned above.
I checked the thing created from nothing in 1:1 versus the thing made from clouds and atmosphere in Gen 1:7. In every case the translators say the thing made on day two differs from what is created in the beginning.
that's certainly news to me. it hasn't been in ANY translation i've ever read, and it's NOT in the hebrew.
quote:
if Genesis 1 begins with only a title or summary, then verse 2 contradicts verse 1. God creates the earth (verse 1), but the earth pre-exists creation (verse 2).
what an exceptionally narrow-minded reading! can't "the beginning" be the entire creation week? i think it can! in fact, that word is the title for the book, "b'reishit" or "in the beginning" or "genesis" if you will. the whole book is "in the beginning." it is the origins of the hebrew faith.
If you have a source which contradicts every major version of the Bible on what happened day two, please tell us what it might be.
your source and your logic contradict rational sense, and a reasonable reading of the text, regardless of translation. but just for kicks, here's that new jps:
quote:
When God began to create heaven and earth -- the earth being unformed and void, with darkness over the surface of the deep and a wind from God sweeping over the water -- God said, "Let there be light"; and there was light.
etc. i believe i've already shown why this translation is acceptable, though i would personally render it a little more literally (as above).
Revelation 22:18
i don't take kindly to threats. i counter your revelation with deuteronomy 12:32 and 13:1-whatever.
and i am not adding anything to the text -- you are. you are inserting a entirely distinct creation where the text describes none. why have a "vague" reference to a previous creation that was not described? the fact that this creation is described totally refutes your point. why not start with noah? god un-creates everything (except heaven) in chapter 6 and 7, and returns the planet to the condition it was in genesis 1:2. why not start there? because the text wants to start "in the beginning." the point of this text and its placement is to be the beginning.
This response also answers your assertions about WHY WAS IT DARK ON ONE DAY?,
no, it does not. not at all. if heaven existed, and there was a sun, why WAS it dark? why did light have to be created if it already existed? where does the sun exist before it was "made" and before the place it exists is "made?" how is something "created" and then "made" at some point afterwards? your view does not make a lick of sense.
and PLANTS BEFORE SUNLIGHT?
again, saying there was a sun directly contradicts the text. your interpretation is anti-textual, and therefore wrong. the text CANNOT be accurate if we have to ignore what it says to make it so.
In Gen 1:1 God creates the astronomical bodies, which has to include the sun if nothing else. In Gen 1:14-18 on the fourth day, God makes complete His purposes for already existing sun, moon, and stars. Asserting He "created" them then is simply adding to Scriptures what you and the Young Earth Creationists want them to say. [ed 02-04]
you see this word in verse 14? . yehey. literally, "be!" it is an emphatic command to come into existance, and ALWAYS associated with creation. if god says tells something to come into existance, and to exist in a certain place when it already does, god is about as powerful as the dog trainer who tells his sleeping dog "play dead."
Edited by arachnophilia, : No reason given.


This message is a reply to:
 Message 103 by MacCullock, posted 02-04-2007 12:00 PM MacCullock has not replied

arachnophilia
Member (Idle past 1362 days)
Posts: 9069
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Message 109 of 302 (382484)
02-04-2007 11:16 PM
Reply to: Message 107 by doctrbill
02-04-2007 9:58 PM


Re: Obviously not reading the Bible
The "firmament" dome was created for the same reason as the Astro Dome: to keep the ground dry under it, and to hold up the big lights. This is what you get from Genesis when you actually read the Bible.
a good point.
From the very sources which you cite: bara means "TO CUT, TO CARVE OUT, TO FORM BY CUTTING" and to the best of my knowledge, you can't cut "nothing."
creatio-ex-nihilo is basically not ever once described in the bible. the only ARGUABLE instance is in genesis 1:1. and that's arguable. clearly, water seems to pre-exist (as you mention). the "cutting" is because god creates by means of division. he sorts things into creations by separate one thing from another in the primordial chaos. you'll find that almost all of god's creation is separation: light from dark, day from night, land from water, etc. dualism is strewn throughout the chapter, everything created with its opposite.


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arachnophilia
Member (Idle past 1362 days)
Posts: 9069
From: god's waiting room
Joined: 05-21-2004


Message 111 of 302 (382489)
02-04-2007 11:35 PM
Reply to: Message 110 by doctrbill
02-04-2007 11:26 PM


Re: Obviously not reading the Bible
oh no, of course. your additions are always informative. i highly suspect that you know a great deal more about theology and the text than i do, and it's always a pleasure to learn new things.
i tend to get bogged down in the details, and miss the obvious forest for the trees. your observation is much more concise and to the point.
Edited by arachnophilia, : No reason given.


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arachnophilia
Member (Idle past 1362 days)
Posts: 9069
From: god's waiting room
Joined: 05-21-2004


Message 127 of 302 (383118)
02-06-2007 10:46 PM
Reply to: Message 120 by danny
02-06-2007 11:25 AM


Re: Getting back on track
We can't really regard the 'days' of creation as actual days (I'm sure you can figure out why)
no. why? because obviously if we read the text literally, it's wrong? that's not a good reason if we are testing for accuracy. we are merely confirming our own biases.
there is simply no good argument that they mean anything other than "days." even in the more symbolic and applied readings -- higher interpretations than the literal -- it's clearly talking about one singular week of creation. the story is about time, what marks time (the sun, the moon), day and night, and the origin of shabat. reading it as anything else is simply to support a rather faulty idea of what the text is.
(mind you, there was no mention of bacteria, amino acids or any pre-biotic systems)
of course not. the people who wrote the story had no idea of what those things are, and this is NOT the focus of the text.
And I think you'll find (but correct me if I'm wrong) that the animals "brought forth" from the sea include "cattle, creeping things and wild animals".
consider yourself corrected.
quote:
20 And God said: 'Let the waters swarm with swarms of living creatures, and let fowl fly above the earth in the open firmament of heaven.'
quote:
24 And God said: 'Let the earth bring forth the living creature after its kind, cattle, and creeping thing, and beast of the earth after its kind.' And it was so.


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arachnophilia
Member (Idle past 1362 days)
Posts: 9069
From: god's waiting room
Joined: 05-21-2004


Message 128 of 302 (383119)
02-06-2007 10:50 PM
Reply to: Message 125 by danny
02-06-2007 11:57 AM


Re: Obviously not reading the Bible
I use word 'expansion' because in my Oxford Collins Holy Bible Concordance it specifically relates it to 'firmament',
yes, "expansion" as in what happens to hot metal when you beat it with a hammer. that "expanse" essentially means "flat."
similarly, the word "firmament" has a rather strict connotation of solidity. i mean, the word "firm" is right in there.


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arachnophilia
Member (Idle past 1362 days)
Posts: 9069
From: god's waiting room
Joined: 05-21-2004


Message 281 of 302 (408659)
07-04-2007 12:52 AM
Reply to: Message 279 by IamJoseph
07-03-2007 11:31 PM


is this even on-topic?
Here is Genesis' reading of what it means by 'kind' - an apt term used for all generations of mankind's understanding:
and yet, evidently, misunderstood by you. when the text says "after its kind" it doesn't necessarily mean that the thing it names is a "kind." it means that those things have subsets that breed amongst themselves and the author doesn't want to list them all.
if you're particularly interested, here is a post i made a while back cross-referencing the "kinds" listed in leviticus 11 with their place in linean taxonomy, where i show that the usage of the word is closer to family or genus, and obviously colloquial and not scientific (as it's all over the map).


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 Message 279 by IamJoseph, posted 07-03-2007 11:31 PM IamJoseph has replied

Replies to this message:
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arachnophilia
Member (Idle past 1362 days)
Posts: 9069
From: god's waiting room
Joined: 05-21-2004


Message 294 of 302 (408691)
07-04-2007 4:53 AM
Reply to: Message 283 by IamJoseph
07-04-2007 1:46 AM


Re: is this even on-topic?
I found the OT texts remarkable in positing a premise with the most appropriate and shortest measure of words.
which OT are you reading?
the "old testament" covers a vast range of writings, subjects, and authors, all with different styles associated. some are wordier than others. genesis/exodus/numbers (up to the census) are essentially one work that is a combination of two epics that span a great length of time: the beginning of the hebrew race to the gift of the covenant on mt horeb, some 2,000 years. the terse quality is sort of required.
other works, like the books of samuel and kings cover a period of only four hundred years or so, and comprise about twice the length.
Reading your link, there is no question the OT undrstands minute breakdowns and variances of life forms, and this pertains also to the 'hidden' biological structures of life forms.
what should have been apparent is that "kind" is just as a general word in hebrew as it is in english. it's not talking about a specific biological division. it's talking about "variety" on any level.
The pig is noted for having a hidden attribute not shared by any animal, and this is vindicated till today: how was this info derivable, considering we could not perform this feat even in today's computer archives and biology prowess with animals - how would the OT know there is no similar animal harbouring that hidden attribute in the amazon, tasmania, africa or iceland?
what hidden attribute would that be?
it's an artiodactyl (even-toed ungulate) but not a ruminant. that makes it not kosher (along with peccaries, hippos, and camels). ruminants (deer, sheep, goats, etc) are. it's not a surprise that the people that wrote the bible observed these animals enough to be able to basically classify them.
The variations between kinds, eg different sub-groups with animals and birds, does not impact Genesis at all. We will probably find more sub-groups within the sub-groups in the future, and devise new categories.
my point was a linguistic one. it is a bad idea to look at one source and assume that because it uses it one way, that that is the definition, when it might be a more broad, vague term. in this case, leviticus tells us that it's used to mean something else. the word, it seems, simply means "group of animals," and not a specific sort of group. sort of like, in biology, the term "taxon." it could be used to mean "family" or "order" or "genus" or even "species." it's the just a general term.
Genesis separates humans from other life forms in accord with the only unique factor applicable: speech; birds by flying; fish by water submerged; etc.
genesis (one) separates mankind from other forms of life in two ways: firstly, the verb it uses. bara is used for special creations -- other life is simply "brought forth" from the earth or the sea. second, it says we are made in the image of god. genesis (two) also says that we are containers for the breath of god.
Describing humans as 'son of man' (from the seed of man);
"son of man" is a hebrew idiom. it means "lowly mortal." it's used in contrast to god. see the book of ezekiel, where god calls the titular prophet by that name. figuratively, it's the equivalent of "lower than dirt." (the name adam being from the word for dirt)
as the final life form; the only one able to have dominion of the universe; and unique by speech - are valid and vindicated constants.
actually, it's rather vain. and somewhat wrong by one account. genesis 1 has us the final creation with dominion over all else, but genesis 2 has us as one of the first creations. animals (and then woman) are created because man is lonely, on a trial-and-error basis.


This message is a reply to:
 Message 283 by IamJoseph, posted 07-04-2007 1:46 AM IamJoseph has replied

Replies to this message:
 Message 296 by IamJoseph, posted 07-04-2007 5:24 AM arachnophilia has replied

arachnophilia
Member (Idle past 1362 days)
Posts: 9069
From: god's waiting room
Joined: 05-21-2004


Message 297 of 302 (408695)
07-04-2007 5:53 AM
Reply to: Message 296 by IamJoseph
07-04-2007 5:24 AM


Re: is this even on-topic?
Only the five books of Moses, not the later prophetic writings. Christianity measures all as the OT, but this is an eronous allocation. Books of Isaiah, Psalms, etc are prophetic reflections of the Mosaic.
perhaps you should then use the correct terms. i will understand you if you write "torah" and "nevi'im" and "kethuvim." but normally, we use "old testament" and "OT" to refer to the entire tanakh according to the masoretic texts (protestant christian old testament).
Disagree. The divisions are critical, pivotal and fundamental - far more so than our current divisions.
then the authors should have taken more time to spell them out clearly, as they do later on in leviticus, where the critical divisions of what is and what is not kosher are made. perhaps they are more fundamental, yes, but that's exactly my point. the word is used both for fundamental distinctions AND for nitty-gritty precise ones.
Perhaps the point escaped you. The pig is differentiated by having split hooves and not chewing its cud
that's what i said. "artiodactyl (even-toed ungulate) but not a ruminant." perhaps the biology escaped you.
- no other animal does that;
i listed several. camel are non-ruminant artiodactyls. so are hippos. (hippos are even in the same family as pigs).
exactly three other animals are described as having the reverse of the pig: they chew the cud and do not have split hooves.
yes, and one of them is the camel. which is curious, because camels do have split hooves, being artiodactyls. and they do also chew the cud, but they are not ruminants, and should really be listed as not kosher for the exact opposite of the reason it actually says.
the other two are rabbits. which are not even close to being ruminants, and don't chew their cud.
IOW, the OT understands biology before the term was invented.
pretty poorly by modern standards if you ask me. but for 6th century bce judah, it was pretty good. they made some attempt at differentiating and classifying animals, and that's a start towards biology i suppose.
I don't think so - that is not correct. The critical factors are highlighted here (water based, land based, speech based, etc, making it varied from a generic group listing.
no, i mean the word itself is general term meaning "group" and can be applied to any group.
The IN GD'S IMAGE' is counted as the bewstowing of speech.
uh, that's a bit of a stretch, but since god in genesis 1 creates by speaking, i could see someone making this sort of point in the talmud or midrashim. i've certainly see crazier ways of reading these two chapters.
Its also a descrion of man's kind, from a big picutre view - eg. not the son of birds. The condescending factor is conditional to the context.
indeed.
as the final life form; the only one able to have dominion of the universe; and unique by speech - are valid and vindicated constants.
yes, if you read one chapter and not the other.
Man and woman were created at the same instant
in chapter 1. in chapter 2, man is formed from the dirt, and woman is made from him. at separate instants, and after some amount of time of man being lonely.
when they were separated, the word created is not used.
nor at all in the that story, which starts about halfway through genesis 2:4 and continues through ch 4. it is a separate story, and it is a mistake to conflate the two.
The term of 'man' in IT IS NOT GOOD FOR MAN TO BE ALONE' - refers to human here.
generalized, yes. but at that instant, there was only one human god was talking about it.
Adam = both man and human.
"adam" is also a proper name. in genesis 1, "adam" refers to mankind, as it is a generalized text. in genesis 2, "adam" is a proper name of a specific man, as it is a specific text.
the gender is not particularly implied in the mankind case, but it is in the proper name case. not many women running around named "adam."


This message is a reply to:
 Message 296 by IamJoseph, posted 07-04-2007 5:24 AM IamJoseph has replied

Replies to this message:
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arachnophilia
Member (Idle past 1362 days)
Posts: 9069
From: god's waiting room
Joined: 05-21-2004


Message 299 of 302 (408698)
07-04-2007 6:06 AM
Reply to: Message 295 by IamJoseph
07-04-2007 5:01 AM


biology is fun
BODILY HAIRS
all mammals.
BONES
all vertebrates.
LUNGS
all amniotes, adult amphibians, and some various sarcoptergiian fish
EYES
oooh, tough one. most vertebrates, some molluscs, arthropoda... uhh... uh...
TEETH
easy, gnathostomata.
SKIN
not sure that's even a good definition. pretty much everything from the microscopic level on up.
EXTENDED CHINS
among hominids? that's actually a good one for homo sapiens that differentiates us from even our closes relatives.
THUMBS
primates (and possums).
SPEECH
insects, cephalopods, and many higher mammals (dolphins and whales, particularly) all have complex forms of communication.


This message is a reply to:
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