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Author | Topic: How did animal get to isolated places after the flood? | |||||||||||||||||||
Taz Member (Idle past 3319 days) Posts: 5069 From: Zerus Joined: |
The smell onboard the ark must have been terrible with all the foods and excrements rotting. I have lizard terrariums and fish tanks all over the house, and there are over a hundred animal living in those miniature environments. Long story short, they smell and taking care of them ain't easy!
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Taz Member (Idle past 3319 days) Posts: 5069 From: Zerus Joined: |
bluegenes writes:
I'm going to put on my very serious hat on for a moment here. Exactly. God did it, so magic is allowed, so ultimately, there's no point in all this "creation science" stuff anyway. Which is why everyone on the thread except for one, I think (RiverRat) is treating it as a joke. Riverrat has been very indirect as far as this thread is concern. He has not said it straight out, but a very big part of him still wants to believe the literal story of the flood even if he knows the illogic in it. If you look back at the posts he has made in this thread and similar threads, you will see that he is approaching the flood problem with the "god of the gaps" attitude. Basically, he is depending on the fact that we could never be absolutely certain of anything, especially something like the flood, to try to hint at its legitimacy. After all, if you boil down our argument against the flood, it is essentially just the total lack of evidence for it, and that is what riverrat is betting all his money on. In essence, he hopes that his god exists somewhere within the gaps of human knowledge on the matter.
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Taz Member (Idle past 3319 days) Posts: 5069 From: Zerus Joined: |
riverrat writes:
Can we all agree that the earth has no corners, as is suggested by the bible? There, if you agree to this very simple fact, than it's objective.
Show me one thing that is not subjective.
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Taz Member (Idle past 3319 days) Posts: 5069 From: Zerus Joined: |
iceage writes:
Actually, this is up for debate, supposedly. Some creationists have claimed that since 3.14...... isn't a perfect number, god couldn't possibly have made it that way. They argue that the real pi is 3.0.
The ratio of the circumference to diameter is the same for all sizes of circles and is approximately 22/7 2 + 2 = 4
Again, this is up for debate. Since god made everything, he could have easily made 2+2 out to be 7.
The earth orbits the sun and our sun is member of a galaxy of suns.
We all know this is bullocks. The bible specifically stated that the earth is a 2 dimensional object with corners. Since there's no mention of a "galaxy" in the bible, its existence should be up for debate.
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Taz Member (Idle past 3319 days) Posts: 5069 From: Zerus Joined: |
In no particular order:
Isaiah 40:22Jeremiah 16:19 Mathew 4:8 Isaiah 11:12 Job 38:13 Revelation 7:1 Ok, so we could also say that these were all figures of speech. But I must wonder, if this book is really the true word of god, wouldn't you at least expect a word or two that says the earth was more sphere-like than a flat object?
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Taz Member (Idle past 3319 days) Posts: 5069 From: Zerus Joined: |
Riverrat writes:
I only quoted 2+2=4 from iceage because I wanted to limit our conversation to just one thing. iceage writes:
All of this is subjective, no matter how objective you think it is. 2 + 2 = 4We are limited by viewing the world through our subjective minds. And nothing in science is ever "proven." Don't try to take this conversation farther, you will not teach me anything. I am a realist, I still think I have the most open mind in EVC, yet most will argue against that. All of those points are up for debate in some form or fashion. When you prove that God doesn't exist, then we can talk.
Since you claimed that 2+2=4 is not objective, can you perhaps give us an example of when 2+2 is not 4? BTW, nice dodge.
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Taz Member (Idle past 3319 days) Posts: 5069 From: Zerus Joined: |
Your little game of dodging the question is getting tiring.
Let's look at the link you gave.
rr writes:
There isn't a what in there. The number "2" is a completely abstract concept that helps us keep track physical objects.
Question 2. 2+2 what? = 4 what? 2+2 is just numbers that we invented with our subjective minds to represent something, they don't acutally exist.
The actually physical existence of the number 2 isn't in question here. The question is whether the abstract concept of 2+2 will ever be anything but 4?
quote:What does that have to do with what we are talking about? The question is 2+2 not 2.4+2.4. 2+2 will only equal four in a base ten system.
Do you even know what a base ten system is? Or base 2? Or base 3? 2+2 will always be 4 no matter what system you use. Now, the symbolic representation of the number changes, just like the word car in english changes to the word voiture in french, but both words refer to the same thing. For example, in a base 3, you'd have 0,1,2,10,11,12,20, etc. 10, in this case, is the same thing as 4 in a base ten system. It doesn't matter what symbol I use to represent these numbers. Say I'm going to use the following for a base 3: = 0= 1 ‘ = 2 ‘ + ‘ will always be . If I then decide to represent this number in base ten, it will be 4 instead. If I want to represent this number in base 2, it will be 100. If I want to represent this number in english, it will be four. If I want to represent this number in french, it will be quatre. If I want to represent this number in spanish, it will be cuatro. Whatever language or system I use to represent this number, it will always be the same thing. A car is a car no matter if you call it a car or voiture.
I think the real kicker is that you cannot accurately measure anything in the universe, since everything is moving, so you will never even be able to say something, is exactly 2.
And what does that have to do with what we are talking about? We are talking about the mathematical abstract concept of 2+2. Again, your little game is getting tiring. I'm getting tempted to ask for moderator intervention. Edited by Tazmanian Devil, : No reason given.
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Taz Member (Idle past 3319 days) Posts: 5069 From: Zerus Joined: |
rr writes:
No, it is objective because no matter where you go and no matter who you ask, 2+2 is always going to be 4.
Then a concept is subjective, always.Right now, the thinking is that there is no such thing as "2". If the number 2 is not representing anything, then it is just merely a concept, therefor subjective by nature.
Again, something is subjective only if it varies from place to place and from person to person. If I go to some tribe somewhere in africa and ask the people there if there are 5 fingers on my hand and I show them my hand, they are still going to say yes just the same as if I go to the pope in italy and ask the same question.
Because nothing can ever be exactly "2" so you are always rounding off.
Is this the reason why you think gay people are less than people? By the way, there's one example right there. My wife and I = 2 people no matter how you look at it.
That wasn't my idea, I grabbed it off the web somewhere.
11 in a base 3 system is equal to 4 in a base 10 system. What part of it don't you get?In a 3 based counting system, 2+2=11. Again, it is the language that changes, not the thing that the language is representing. The word car is different than the word voiture, but both words refer to the same thing. The object that we call a car and the french call a voiture is the same object. The number that is represented by "4" in a base 10 system is the same number that is represented by "11" in a base 3 system. That is what we are talking about, not the specific language that is used to represent it.
In other words, you should be saying to yourself, 2+2=4 in my mind.
No, it is objective because even if you go the pope and asks him if 2+2=4, he's going to say yes. You can even go back in time and ask a medieval person if 2+2=4 and he's going to say yes. If you go to france and you ask a person if deux + deux = quatre, he's going to say oui. Different languages that refer to the same thing. That is objectivity.SO in other words, it is subjective. Now, it is subjective only if a french person disagrees with you that deux + deux = quatre. If in english two + two = four but in french deux + deux = trois, then it is subjective. But clearly, if you go to anywhere in the world, and if you use any language in the world, it's still going to be the same thing.
For what? so he can tell you that your wrong?
Well, perhaps you'd like to ask a moderator for his opinion on this? My temptation to ask for moderator intervention isn't to confirm what I've said about the subject. It's about you playing your game again.
This is not a Christian concept, or is it my personal concept. It is a scientific one. Maybe you should take some time out to study it, and try to understand it, then be open to the possibility, like a real scientist would.
What possibility? That 2+2=5 in your lalaland universe? You seem to have trouble understanding the concept of a thing and the language that is used to represent it. Take music, for example, since I'm a sort of musician who happens to have perfect pitch. When I think of a note or when I play improv jazz, I don't actually think of A, B, or C. I actually think of the pitches that I am going to play. For a Bb instrument, a D is the same thing as a C on a piano. If I switch to my A clarinet, the same pitch is called Eb. Different representations for the same thing. Now, if I fly to germany and play a C on the piano and then play a D on my Bb clarinet (given that both are in tune with each other), a german would agree that the two pitches are the same. If I fly to Russia and do the same thing, the russian will agree that they're both the same. In other words, the pitch that is represented by the letter C on a piano and the pitch that is represented by the letter D on a clarinet are the same thing. In the same way, 2+2=4 no matter which language you use or who you ask. This is why it is objective.
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Taz Member (Idle past 3319 days) Posts: 5069 From: Zerus Joined: |
In another thread, specifically the "how does science disprove the bible" thread, shiloh has made some (I think) rather miraculous claims about the animal on the ark and such. I'd like to see shiloh's comment on this topic if I may.
Disclaimer: Occasionally, owing to the deficiency of the English language, I have used he/him/his meaning he or she/him or her/his or her in order to avoid awkwardness of style. He, him, and his are not intended as exclusively masculine pronouns. They may refer to either sex or to both sexes!
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