This would be a valid point, if NJ had, at any time, pointed out what objective act involved in homosexuality is comparable to rape and/or bestiality, and how it is comparable. He hasn't. His only basis for comparison is that he doesn't like any of them.
I'll also point out that NJ has always brought this up in the context of asking
us about the moral distinctions
we draw between the two. And we have always explained the moral difference between the two. For some reason, though, those pages show up blank on his web browser. He claims that we atheists (and, of course, anyone not opposed to homosexuality must be an atheist) have no basis for making moral distinctions, even though we constantly try to explain that we do.
If this is a matter for moderator action, it is largely because this has always come up in the context of a discussion where NJ refuses to even read the replies.
On the other hand, NJ has never really explained why
he thinks that they are morally equivalent. (Well, we know why he does -- because some clown with that very shoddy type of theologic training associated with some Protestant sects, says it's in the Bible.)
Added by edit:See
this post.
Edited by Chiroptera, : Removed signature -- official matter forum
Edited by Chiroptera, : No reason given.