There is no suggestion that he violated the freedom of Pharaoh’s will or that he manipulated Pharaoh
You went on at a some length. However, you did not touch on the verse Ex 7:3.
I am not a biblical expert at all, far from it. However, I read the "I" in that verse to refer to God. Is that true?
If the "I" is god he is the subject of the verb "hardened" isn't he?
Please, show me the correct context that demonstrates that I am wrong. And, no, your words have no bearing on it at all. I need to see the biblical words that straighten this out for me.