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Author Topic:   can science accept assertive law?
imageinvisible
Member (Idle past 5943 days)
Posts: 132
From: Arlington, Texas, US
Joined: 12-03-2007


Message 45 of 78 (445103)
01-01-2008 8:10 AM
Reply to: Message 44 by tesla
12-31-2007 7:29 PM


Operational Science versus Origin Science
existance:
1 a obsolete : reality as opposed to appearance b: reality as presented in experience c (1): the totality of existent things (2): a particular being (all the fair existences of heaven ” John Keats) d: sentient or living being : life
2 a: the state or fact of having being especially independently of human consciousness and as contrasted with nonexistence (the existence of other worlds) b: the manner of being that is common to every mode of being c: being with respect to a limiting condition or under a particular aspect
3: actual or present occurrence (existence of a state of war)
Is one of these definitions congruent with your use of the word existance?
Energy cannot be created or destroyed by any natural means, therefore it should not exist. Energy does exist and it must have a cause, but the cause cannot be natural, because energy cannot be created or destroyed naturaly. Logical/reasonable conclusion, energy didn't occure naturaly. Ergo; because energy exists it must have occured by unnatural means. Therefore God, by logical conclusion, must exist. Is this what you are trying to get at? This I can understand, and even agree with, if that is the point you are trying to make; but science (*current definition) will never accept this conclusion because it is not naturalistic even though it is more than likly the truth, and based on a scientific law. Scientific laws are tentative concerning suppernatural conclusions but absolute concerning natural conclusions, except where they conflict with the naturalistic explaination in which case they are ignored; or where you not aware of this?
Matter is a form of energy, and as a form of energy falls under the same law of conservation as energy. ergo matter cannot be created or destroyed by any natural means.
Is your question concerning the Big bang or that which went bang? To ask the questions who, what, when, where, why, and how are all scientific questions, it's just that science (*current definition) doesn't have an adaquate naturalitic answer and therefore cannot answer the question scientificaly (from a naturalistic stand point). That which went bang for all intents and purposes was nothing and it came from more nothing. The question is how did it cease to be nothing and become something, without an adaquate cause. The big bang postulate is accepted scientificaly purly on the grounds that it is a natural explaination reguardless of whether it is feasable or not. i.e. cause is irrelevant to science if the only possible cause is suppernatural creation. Even though the law of cause and effect is the foundation of science. Like I pointed out, scientific laws are tentative concerning suppernatural explainations, but absolute concerning natural explainations, except where they conflict with the naturalistic explaination in which case they are ignored.
in order to argue logic, reason, and truth scientificaly one must first prove that they are material and therefore natural and not imaterial and therefore unatural. Someone, I believe it was in this thread, stated that the number 3 exists either naturaly or materialisticaly, frankly I don't see how they arrived at this conclusion. The number 3 is a concept that exists only in thought the same as logic, reason, and truth. Just because there are 3 apples sitting on a table doesn't mean that the number 3 is either natural or material. It just means that we have concluded through a thought process that there are 3 apples sitting on a table. (Or do you propose that the number 3 is responsible for producing 3 apples sitting on a table?) I think that what you are trying to argue is the reverse of 'there are no absolutes' which is an absolute statment. In your case 'everything is absolute.' A statement that can only be proven or disproven by logic and reason the same as the first statement.
There are still some mysteries in the universe that have yet to be explained, either naturaly or suppernaturaly (except for the God did it arguement).
One example for instance: https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=DfPeprQ7oGc&feature=related the next logical question at the end of this video. How does the act of observing something change that which is observed? More to the point, which observation is the correct one? That the act of observing collapsed the wave form, or that the wave form only exists as long as we don't attempt to observe the wave form? Putting this into the context of this thread; does something exist before one observes it, or does it only exist after one observes it. More specificly does the act of observing whether or not something exists cause it to exist, or did it exist all along, whether it was observed or not?
That the universe exists seems, at least from my stand point, to be an absolute statement, and not a tentative one; and I observe that statment to be true beyond reasonable doubt based on inferances from scientific laws. That God exists seems, also from my stand point, to be an absolute statement, and not one I make tentatively; and I observe that statement to be true beyond reasonable doubt based on inferances from scientific laws. Whether either can be proven from a scientific (*current definition) stand point, does not seem to fall under the scope of science (*current definition). Whether or not existance exists outside the universe, froma a cursory study of the definitions, does not seem to refer to an existential enquiry, (based on existentialism) but rather seems to refer to the; of, relating to, or affirming existance, grounded in existence or the experience of existence, or having being in time and space; definition of existential. Existance beyond the universe, from a scientific stand point, at best could only prove or disprove such purely on a mathimatical probabilty; however, science cannot prove whether or not something exists outside the universe because it cannot test it directly.
see parallel dimensions/parallel universes
* Post 1950's = current definition of science verses pre 1950's definition of science = not current definition of science. Science was redifined in the 50's to exclude any truth that was not naturalistic, and therefore science determines what is or is not true based souly on whether or not the the explaination of an occurance is natural, and not whether or not it is true. This is the definition of science when used in EvC debates, as defined in previous posts in this thread.
more accurate definitions:
**Operational Science: That which provided for the computer monitor which you are currently staring at; for instance. It reqiures no starting assumptions or presuppositions, it is scientificly absolute. It is based souly on repeatable experimentations that yield the same predictable results every time. Simply put it is directly testable.
***Origin Science: That which attempts to explain the origin of the universe and everything therein, through the scientific interpritation of secound (and sometimes third) hand observations of the evidence, because it cannot be observed first hand. This method requires a great deal of assuptions and suppositions which cannot be proven or disproven conclusively. Simply put it can only be tested indirectly; cannot be tested directly. (ergo the reason behind the EvC debate) Changing the primary assumptions or suppositions changes how the evidence is interprited, because it changes the predicted experamental results, i.e. the experiments used to prove one stand point do not yield the same results as those which are used to prove another stand point and do not yield the same predictable results every time. This form of science is tentative and cannot be proven scientificly absolute (in referance to operational science) at best it can only be proven legalisticly (ergo beyond reasonable doubt). your OP fits into this catagory, and, for the most part, in this forum topic 'Is it science'.
Disclaimer: this post may contain information, logic/reason exercises, and/or questions used to illustate what I base my logical conclusions on and to expond upon a particular idea. That information/etc. should not be debated in this thread, and any questions that do not fit the topic should not be answered in this thread. Many of these questions/etc. are retorical and/or are included to elicit a mental response not necessaraly a verbal (or in this case a literary) one.
Topical discretion is advised.

This message is a reply to:
 Message 44 by tesla, posted 12-31-2007 7:29 PM tesla has replied

Replies to this message:
 Message 46 by nwr, posted 01-01-2008 8:38 AM imageinvisible has not replied
 Message 52 by tesla, posted 01-01-2008 11:59 AM imageinvisible has not replied
 Message 53 by sidelined, posted 01-01-2008 12:35 PM imageinvisible has not replied
 Message 54 by Rahvin, posted 01-01-2008 12:41 PM imageinvisible has replied

  
imageinvisible
Member (Idle past 5943 days)
Posts: 132
From: Arlington, Texas, US
Joined: 12-03-2007


Message 77 of 78 (445445)
01-02-2008 1:38 PM
Reply to: Message 54 by Rahvin
01-01-2008 12:41 PM


Re: Operational Science versus Origin Science
Rahvin writes:
Your logic is flawed - you assume that a cause is necessary for the existence of matter and energy.
The Big Bang does not in any way state that there was a "begining" moment that magically "poofed" everything in the Universe into exisetence
at the big bang, the universe and time itself came into existance, so this is the first cause. Steven Hawkins Cambridge, July 28, 1997
But is it any less credible than the picture of a universe exploding from nothing at all, expanding....because that is pretty much what all the calculations of modern science are asking you to accept. Steven Hawkin's Universe pg. 16
Apearently my logic isn't the only one in question then. Also apearent is that you missed the question at the end that energy cannot be created/destroyed paragraph where I asked Tesla if this was what he was tring to get at. Did you bother reading the messages between NWR and Percy? Percy pointed out (and I now point out to you) that I was attempting to find out where Tesla was coming from, without completely condemning him for not being clearer. Unlike some.

Disclaimer: Topical discretion is advised.
This post may contain information, logic/reason exercises, and/or questions used to illustate what I base my logical conclusions on and to expond upon a particular idea. That information/etc. should not be debated in this thread, and any questions that do not fit the topic should not be answered in this thread. Many of these questions/etc. are retorical and/or are included to elicit a mental response not necessaraly a verbal (or in this case a literary) one.

This message is a reply to:
 Message 54 by Rahvin, posted 01-01-2008 12:41 PM Rahvin has not replied

Replies to this message:
 Message 78 by tesla, posted 01-03-2008 8:26 PM imageinvisible has not replied

  
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