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David wrote all the psalms subscribed to him. The details in many psalms describing the valleys are percieved when one examines the house of David site, and looks from where the terrace would be, whereby that psalm even says where it was written. The psalms scrolls did not contain a signature, if that is what you are referring to, but the contents speak for themselves more accurately than some one later signing them. David's scribes, responsible for archiving the king's writings and orders, would have applied a notation, including an authentic, historical description noting the event and time. Here, David had battles with his son, also recorded in the book of kings, which details David's victory over the original philistines - there is no record of the philistines after this date. The philistines had an underground city with tunnels and catacombs, in today's Gaza - these tunnels still exist today. Such stats are far more telling than a signature:
Do we even have incontrovertible evidence that THE "King David" (as recorded in the Bible) actually existed? And no I do not consider the "House of David Inscription" to be that evidence. There may have indeed have been a King David of Israel - likely there was at the least an ancient leader of a confederation of Israeli tribes named David - but that is not the same as saying there was a slingshot-wielding shepherd boy named David who became the King of Israel and wrote the Psalms. After all, knowledge of the geography of a particular area is not limited to that mythical King David purported to have lived there - come on, let's use a little basic logic here. And what would have prevented an unscrupulous unknown scribe from using the good King David's name to gain some acclaim for his scribblings after David's time had passed?
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