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Author Topic:   Faith and belief - The Almighty God revealed through his grandness
Straggler
Member
Posts: 10333
From: London England
Joined: 09-30-2006


Message 155 of 224 (498148)
02-08-2009 3:52 PM
Reply to: Message 154 by ICANT
02-08-2009 3:37 PM


Re: Law
That means if the woman in John 8:3-11 was not a decendant of Abraham she was not under the law.
The Scripture refers to her only as woman.
And if she was not under the law the law could not be applied.
Are you saying that the commandments only apply to Jews?
Are you saying that if a non-Jew commits adultery that this is not an immoral act according to the bible?
Can you clarify as I am sure that this is not what you are saying despite how it sounds.

This message is a reply to:
 Message 154 by ICANT, posted 02-08-2009 3:37 PM ICANT has replied

Replies to this message:
 Message 157 by DevilsAdvocate, posted 02-08-2009 4:28 PM Straggler has not replied
 Message 159 by ICANT, posted 02-08-2009 4:39 PM Straggler has replied

Straggler
Member
Posts: 10333
From: London England
Joined: 09-30-2006


Message 160 of 224 (498156)
02-08-2009 5:01 PM
Reply to: Message 159 by ICANT
02-08-2009 4:39 PM


Re: Law
Somethings are written to everyone in general.
Somethings are written a particular group of people.
Somethings were written to individuals.
OK. We apparently know that the law is only intended for some people.
How do we know that the definition of these actions as sinful applies to everyone?
Does it explicitly differentiate in the bible?
Edited by Straggler, : No reason given.

This message is a reply to:
 Message 159 by ICANT, posted 02-08-2009 4:39 PM ICANT has not replied

Replies to this message:
 Message 161 by DevilsAdvocate, posted 02-08-2009 5:53 PM Straggler has replied

Straggler
Member
Posts: 10333
From: London England
Joined: 09-30-2006


Message 162 of 224 (498162)
02-08-2009 6:26 PM
Reply to: Message 161 by DevilsAdvocate
02-08-2009 5:53 PM


Re: Law
OK. So (and this is a genuine question not necessarily a point of debate) if the law regarding adultery (for example) does not apply to gentiles on what biblical basis can it be concluded that adultery is sinful for gentiles?
Is it explicitly stated as seperate to Jewish law and sinful for all in the bible?

This message is a reply to:
 Message 161 by DevilsAdvocate, posted 02-08-2009 5:53 PM DevilsAdvocate has replied

Replies to this message:
 Message 165 by DevilsAdvocate, posted 02-08-2009 9:12 PM Straggler has not replied

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