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t is clear from Gen 2-4 that this describes the point of domestication of wheat in southern Turkey.
I can't see any indication that it refers solely to wheat. Or even a clear indication of the location.
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Therefore, either creation of man occurred there supporting the YEC, or there was a gap, and man was created in Africa
Or, alternatively, your "interpretation" owes far more to your assumptions than it does to the text.
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Gen 2:5 supports the gap, with the use of the word "generations."
I don't know how you get that. The "generations" referred to are the descendants of Adam. The definition offered by
dictionary.com that most closely fits the usage is:
the offspring of a certain parent or couple, considered as a step in natural descent.
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If so, Gen 5:1-2 relates to Gen 1:27 and Gen 5:3 refers to Gen 2-4.
It seems to more clearly imply that Genesis 5:1-2 and Genesis 5:3 refer to the same individual - since the chapter is about the descendants of Adam, and there is nothing to indicate that the man of Genesis 5:1-2 is anybody else.
And I have to say that I am puzzled by your reading of the flood story. Are you seriously suggesting that it refers to a flood that - while doubtless serious enough for the people affected - covered only a single city and it's immediate surroundings, and left many survivors to rebuild.