I'm sure she is, as it is trivially true. The Bible is a collection of works, the most recent of which completed some considerable time before redaction. How could the Bible itself claim infallibility when none of its components contain any knowledge of its own existence???
Because several parts of the Bible do contain reference to 'Scripture', so 2 Timothy 3:16 (KJV) tells us:
quote:
All scripture is given by inspiration of God, and is profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness
You could argue this isn't a claim of inerrancy, but the Bible is capable of making reference to itself.
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