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Author Topic:   Divinity of Jesus
jaywill
Member (Idle past 1968 days)
Posts: 4519
From: VA USA
Joined: 12-05-2005


Message 505 of 517 (530092)
10-12-2009 8:44 AM
Reply to: Message 504 by iano
10-11-2009 10:25 AM


Re: The Enjoyable Impossible
Indeed - when redemption from the rightful claims of the law is the issue at hand. But the problems for Peg's tri-partite plan multiply when we consider things from the perspective of loves' desire to forgive. The nature of forgiveness is such as to require the forgiver to be the one to pay whatever the cost of the offence happens to be - themselves.
In order for God to forgive, God himself has to suffer the cost attaching to our sin.
Thank you iano.
And to echo your post, there are only two persons that have the right to deal with the problem of sin. One is the one who has sinned against another. The other is the one who has been sinned against.
This forgiveness of God is because of His taking up the consequence of man's sin. God in Christ has suffered the consequence.
Only the one who has been sinned against can take up the sin of the sinning one.
A third party has no right to come in and forgive the offense. The party sinned against has the right to forgive. The redemptive work of Christ is God Himself coming to bear man's sin against Him. It is God bearing that which man has sinned against Him.
In other words if Jesus Christ were not God, He would not be qualified to bear our sins righteously.
Please comment further on this observation.
Psalm 90:2 in my Recovery Version reads "Indeed from eternity to eternity, You are God." The Psalmist is refering to Jehovah (v.13)
Micah 5:2 speaking of the Messiah of Bethlehem Ephrathah says - "From you will come forth to Me He who is to be Ruler in Israel; And His goings forth are from ancient times, from the days of eternity."
I see every indication here that the born Christ is God from eternity in Psalm 90.
Peg, clings to some passages but seems to completely ignore many that have been presented.
Edited by jaywill, : No reason given.
Edited by jaywill, : No reason given.

This message is a reply to:
 Message 504 by iano, posted 10-11-2009 10:25 AM iano has seen this message but not replied

  
jaywill
Member (Idle past 1968 days)
Posts: 4519
From: VA USA
Joined: 12-05-2005


Message 508 of 517 (532649)
10-25-2009 8:52 AM
Reply to: Message 507 by Peg
10-25-2009 7:01 AM


Re: God was the Word
i havnt entered into the kingdom of God because thats in heaven, and im on earth...i hope to stay here
its nice here lol
Peg, the New Testament does not restrict the kingdom to only being in Heaven. For example, in the church age, on the earth, Paul informs us that the kingdom of God is with the normal prevailing new testament church life:
"For the kingdom of God is not eating and drinking, but righteousness and peace and joy in the Holy Spirit." (Rom. 14:16)
Please read carefully the context of the whole chapter 14 of Romans. Paul is speaking of a vital and vibrant church practice in the normalcy of the Holy Spirit. This is to take place on the earth during the church age. The "righteousness and peace and joy in the Holy Spirit" is the victorious Christian life today on the earth.
In other words "your church should not be defeated being preoocupied with eating and drinking but neglecting the victorious spiritual life. But it should be in the kingdom of God; in "righteousness and peace and joy in the Holy Spirit."
Neither did he write that "the kingdom of God [WILL BE]" as to the future millennium. But it IS presently "righteousness and peace and joy in the Holy Spirit"
In the same sense Paul informs the Colossian Christians that they have already been transfered by the Father to the kingdom of Son of God's love -
"Giving thanks to the Father, who has qualified you ... who delivered us out of the authority of darkness and transferred us into the kingdom of the Son of His love, in whom we have redemption, the forgiveness of sins." (See Col. 1:12-14)
Past tense - "has delivered us, has ... transfered us into the kingdom." Their participation in the kingdom of God is not on hold until they go to Heaven. They have been qualified, forgiven, and transfered into God's kingdom.
The Apostle John, when writing the book of Revelation, said that he was at that time a "partaker in the triubulation and kingdom and endurance" (Rev. 1:9). John was on the earth.
For Paul to preach the gospel of the grace of God on the earth was also for Him to announce the kingdom of God:
" ... I have received from the Lord Jesus to solemnly testify of the gospel of the grace of God. And now, behold I know that you all, among whom I have gone about proclaiming the kingdom, will see my face no more." (Acts 20:24,25)
His testifying to the gospel of grace was also his proclaiming of God's kingdom.
Consider also that Jesus says that He will removed from His kingdom all stumbling blocks and those who cause offense.
"The Son of Man will send His angels, and they will collect out of His kingdom all the stumbling blocks and those who proactice lawlessness. And will cast them into the furnace of fire ... Then the righteous will shine forth like the sun in the kingdom of thier Father." (See Matthew 13:41-43)
Surely this does not mean that Christ will rapture to Heaven the believers WITH the unbelieving and there in Heaven collect out of His Heaven those to be condemned to perdition. Rather this collecting out of His kingdom should be an activity to take place on earth where the overcoming disciples of Christ are amidst the workers of lawlessness (See verse 38 where [b]"the field"{/b where the tares and wheat grow together is "the world").
This is a big subject. This post is to prove that the kingdom of God is not restrictedd to be in Heaven during the church age or even immediately after Christ's second coming.
Edited by jaywill, : No reason given.
Edited by jaywill, : No reason given.
Edited by jaywill, : No reason given.
Edited by jaywill, : No reason given.
Edited by jaywill, : No reason given.

This message is a reply to:
 Message 507 by Peg, posted 10-25-2009 7:01 AM Peg has replied

Replies to this message:
 Message 509 by Peg, posted 11-02-2009 3:52 AM jaywill has replied

  
jaywill
Member (Idle past 1968 days)
Posts: 4519
From: VA USA
Joined: 12-05-2005


Message 510 of 517 (534366)
11-07-2009 8:27 AM
Reply to: Message 509 by Peg
11-02-2009 3:52 AM


Re: God was the Word
long time no see...hope you are all well
Thankyou. My God is the man Jesus.
jaywill writes:
the New Testament does not restrict the kingdom to only being in Heaven.
i'm aware of that
The kingdom rules from heaven, over the earth
therefore you're quite right to say that it is not restricted to heaven. However, those who rule in the kingdom with Jesus are most definitatly restricted to heaven for Paul said at 1 Cor. 15:50
"I tell you this, brethren: flesh and blood cannot inherit the kingdom of God, nor does the perishable inherit the imperishable."
this means that a flesh and blood person cannot inherit the kingdom of God...why do you suppose that is?
When man was created a living soul in Genesis 2:7 it was God's purpose that the strongest part and ruling part of his being would be the innermost human spirit. The order of man's being should be the body is under the control of the soul and the soul is under the control of the human spirit. The human spirit was created the highest part of man.
In the disobedience of Adam the human spirit became comatose and deadened. God warned man that in the day he would eat of the tree of the knowledge of good and evil he would die. The death of the human spirit into its comatose state was the initiation of this death that God warned man about. Of course eventually man's body died also.
When the human spirit died the human soul ascended to be the highest part of man's being. This was a corrupting of man. And this corrupting effected also the body. The body of the fallen man with the deadened spirit is a soulish body which is corrupted.
Now Paul says that corruption cannot inherit incorruption:
"Now this I say, brothers, that flesh and blood cannot inherit the kingdom of God, neither does curruption inherit incorruption" (1 Cor. 15:50)
The Recovery Version Footnote on this verse is helpful to me:
"Flesh and blood are the components of the soulish body, which is corruptible and is not qualified to inherit the kingdom of God, which is incorruptible. Corruption cannot inherit incorruption. Our corruptible body must be resurrected into an incorruptible one that we may be able to inherit the incorruptible kingdom of God in resurrection"
Paul goes on in verse 51 to speak of the changing of those who "sleep", ie. have died in Christ. Their bodies will be resurrected and transfigured - "In a moment, in the twinkling of an eye, at the last trumpet; for the trumpet will sound, and the dead will be raised incorruptible, and we will be changed. For this ccorruptible must put on incorruption, and this mortal must put on immortality."
It is the resurrected and transfigured body of the Christian which inherits the kingdom of God in the millennium.
In the church age, the human spirit has been regenerated. So though body has not yet been transfigured the human spirit is regenerated and the soul is under the process of transformation. The proper new testament church life, therefore is the kingdom of God on this side of the second coming of Christ:
"For the kingdom of God is not eating and drinking, but righteusness and peace and joy in the Holy Spirit." (Rom. 14:17)
This passage refers to the prevailing and normal Christian church in the city of Rome or where ever the church is normal as it should be.
We could also think of the kingdom of God like the human kingdom. One has to have the human life to be in the human kingdom. So one must have the life of God to be in the kingdom of God. Therefore unless one is born again he cannot see the kingdom of God (John 3:3) And unless one is born of water and the Spirit (probably meaning termination of the old life as symbolized in baptism, and the spirit) he cannot enter into the kingdom of God (vs. 5)
In the church age the one participating in the kingdom of God has to be born in his spirit with the King's life. In the millennium she or he must be "swallowed up" by life (2 Cor. 5:4; 1 Cor. 15:54; See also Isaiah 25:8)
This does not address all the difficulties concerning the inheriting of the kingdom of God though. And my understanding is also limited.

This message is a reply to:
 Message 509 by Peg, posted 11-02-2009 3:52 AM Peg has replied

Replies to this message:
 Message 511 by Peg, posted 11-14-2009 9:20 PM jaywill has replied

  
jaywill
Member (Idle past 1968 days)
Posts: 4519
From: VA USA
Joined: 12-05-2005


Message 512 of 517 (535464)
11-16-2009 6:58 AM
Reply to: Message 511 by Peg
11-14-2009 9:20 PM


Re: God was the Word
ok Jaywill, thats fair enough. Jesus did give his life for mankind and he is the one who will eventually bring all things back into harmony with God again.
Jesus not only gave Himself to redeem His people. He also gave Himself TO His people as the indwelling divine seed of God.
"Everyone who has been begotten of God does not practice sin, because His seed abides in him, and he cannot sin, because he has been begotten of God." (1 John 3:9)
Jesus has caused the non-sinning divine seed of the life of God into those whom He has redeemed. The essence of the element of God as seed is implanted into the human spirit of the one begotten of God - born of God.
Have you ever prayed "Lord Jesus, I want the divine seed of God to be planted into me." God does not sin. And this seed of God has nothing to do with sinning. If we allow this seed of God to be planted into us and grow in us, in this way we will be saved from our sins, not only from their guilt but from the power of sin.
Again, Jesus not only dies for the sins of mankind. Jesus brings God into His believers:
"Whoever confesses that Jesus is the Son of God, God abides in him and he in God." (1 John 4:15)
Jehovah God embodied as Jesus Christ has come into me. Part of me is God. Part of my being is Jehovah God because my spirit has been made one spirit with the Spirit of the Lord - "He who is joined to the Lord is one spirit" (1 Cor. 6:17)
I already tried to show you that the Spirit of God in Romans 8:9 is the Spirit of Christ in the same passage. And that this Spirit of God, ie. Spirit of Christ is also Christ HIMSSELF.
"But you are not in the flesh but in the spirit, if indeed the Spirit of God dwells in you. Yet if anyone does not have the Spirit of Christ, he is not of Him. But if Christ is in you ..." (See Romans 8:9-10)
Now I am called away. But I will continue and try to show you that I think your concept of Christ relinquishing the kingdom is not what what First Corinthians 15 is teaching. I do not think your concept of a dethronement of Jesus Christ after the millennium has anything to do with First Corinthians 15.
As a matter of fact there is little there in Christ's humbling Himself under the Father which He has not or is not in such a state already.
I will cont.
Edited by jaywill, : No reason given.
Edited by jaywill, : No reason given.
Edited by jaywill, : No reason given.

This message is a reply to:
 Message 511 by Peg, posted 11-14-2009 9:20 PM Peg has not replied

  
jaywill
Member (Idle past 1968 days)
Posts: 4519
From: VA USA
Joined: 12-05-2005


Message 513 of 517 (535482)
11-16-2009 8:52 AM
Reply to: Message 511 by Peg
11-14-2009 9:20 PM


Re: God was the Word
But tell me this, When Jesus relinquishes his rulership of the Kingdom of God, and puts mankind back in the hands of his God...will you then accept the God whom Jesus humbly subjects himself to?
quote:
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------
1Corinthians 13:24 "Next, the end, when he hands over the kingdom to his God and Father, when he has brought to nothing all government and all authority and power. 25 For he must rule as king until [God] has put all enemies under his feet. 26 As the last enemy, death is to be brought to nothing. 27 For [God] subjected all things under his feet. But when he says that ‘all things have been subjected,’ it is evident that it is with the exception of the one who subjected all things to him. 28 But when all things will have been subjected to him, then the Son himself will also subject himself to the One who subjected all things to him, that God may be all things to everyone.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------
The reconcilliation of man to God is because of Jesus, however the purpose is not for mankind to be worshipers of Jesus...its to reconcile mankind back to God Almighty Jehovah.
Does Jesus relinquish His rulership ? I do not think 1 Cor.15:13 says that Jesus relinquishes His kingship.
Jesus can be subject to the Father without relinquishing His kingahip. Is Jesus not subject to the Father while being Lord during the thirty three and a half years of His earthly ministry ? Did He have to "relinquish" being Lord because He was at that time subject to His Father ?
The interpretation you hold is that Jesus uncrowns Himself as King of kings because He is to be subject to the Father. I see no ground for subjection to the Father calling for this.
Hebrews 1:8 says - "But of the Son, Your throne of God, is forever and ever, and the scepter of uprightness is the scepter of Your kingdom."
1.) This word is spoken to "the Son" , Jesus Christ the Son of God.
2.) The THRONE of the Son of God is "forever and ever". It is not terminated after the millennial kingdom. Rather His throne is unto eternity.
3.) His KINGDOM is therefore also unto eternity.
It also seems not to occur to you that delivering up the kingdom to His Father is not giving AWAY the kingdom to His Father. Nor does is imply the Father TAKING AWAY the kingdom from the Son.
Did it ever occur to you that it may be the Father's good pleasure that once the kingdom is delivered up to the Father the Father continue to install the Son's throne forever and ever ?
In the Trinity each works on behalf of the other in perfect coordination. The Father invests all into the hands of the Son. The Spirit communicates all from the Son to the believers. The Spirit works not for His own glory but the glory of the Son. The Son likewise works for the glory of the Father. And the Father works all for the exultation of the Son.
There is no competition. There is no rivalry. So First Corinthains 15:24-28 does not mean the termination of the Son's "kingdom" which is forever and ever.
Here is a footnote in the Recovery Version on verse 28:
Christ, the Son of God, as the head of mankind in His humanity, is under the headship of God the Father (11:3). This is for the government of God's kingdom. After God the Father has subjected all things under the feet of Christ as a resurrected man in glory (Eph. 1:22; Heb. 2:7-8), and after Christ as such a resurrected man has put all enemies under His feet to execute God the Father's subjection of all things to Him, He as the Son of God, along with His delivering of the kingdom back to God the Father (v.24), will also subject Himself in His divinity to God, who has subjectied all things to Him, the Son in His humanity. This indicates the Son's absolute subjection and subordination to the Father, which exalts the Father that God teh Father may be all in all."
While the passage is not an easy one for me to grasp without help, I see nothing in it indicating a termination of the Son of God's kingdom which the Father has established forever and ever (Hebrews 1:8).
Did it occur to you that the Father is exalted in the Son's being commissioned and anointed to reign forever and ever?
I have more to say on this passage in another post.
Edited by jaywill, : No reason given.
Edited by jaywill, : No reason given.

This message is a reply to:
 Message 511 by Peg, posted 11-14-2009 9:20 PM Peg has replied

Replies to this message:
 Message 514 by Peg, posted 11-17-2009 2:33 AM jaywill has replied

  
jaywill
Member (Idle past 1968 days)
Posts: 4519
From: VA USA
Joined: 12-05-2005


Message 516 of 517 (536067)
11-19-2009 4:32 PM
Reply to: Message 514 by Peg
11-17-2009 2:33 AM


Re: God was the Word
the purpose according to Paul, is to 'hand over the kingdom to his father....so God may be all things to all persons'
G.H. Lang writes as follows -
"The Greek verb used paradidomi can certainly be sometimes translated "deliver up" (as in Matt. 10:17, 19, 21, etc. ...); but it does not necessarily have the force of handing over somethng to the extent that the bestower loses possession. Thus the master of the house going from home "delivered unto his servants his goods," but he did not lose ownership or right of control (Matt. 25:14,20,22). Similarly, "the faith was once for all delivered unto the saints" (Jude 3), but the Lord who imparted to them that knowledge did not surrender possession of it. In this same epistle (1 Cor.) the word is found in six other places (5,5; 11.2, 23 twice; 13.3; 15.3). This last place is in the same chapter that is before us, where Paul says "I delivered unto you that which I also received." It is clear that the Lord did not give up possession by handing the truth to Paul, nor he by passing it on to others."
[The Last Assize, G.H. Lang, Conley & Schoette, pg.57]
jaywill writes:
2.) The THRONE of the Son of God is "forever and ever". It is not terminated after the millennial kingdom. Rather His throne is unto eternity.
there is no reason why Jesus cannot have his own throne...in fact God crowns him with such a thrown when he grants him 'immortality' which is why the scriptures say that Jesus is king forever.
In the picture of the eternal reign in the new heaven and new earth there is one throne which is called "the throne of God and of the Lamb" (Rev. 22:1). It did not say the thrones (plural) of God and the Lamb. Rather the Lamb, the Redeeming God-man is on the throne of God.
But with regard to mankind, it is to Jehovah God who rightfully is their ruler. Jesus does not need to be the Supreme ruler over mankind forever.
Your Recovery Version footnote explains it exactly as I have stated above:
He as the Son of God, along with His delivering of the kingdom back to God the Father (v.24), will also subject Himself in His divinity to God. This indicates the Son's absolute subjection and subordination to the Father, which exalts the Father that God the Father may be all in all.
Has not the Son always been in absolute subjection and subordination to the Father? So I don't see this as necessarily a new state of affairs.
Was the Son not in subjection to the Father in crucifixion and in resurrection ?
And it doesn't occur to you that for God to be all and all could be for the Son to reign forever and ever on the one throne of God and of the Lamb (Rev. 21:1).
If the purpose of the kingdom is for God to be in all, then right now God is not in all... that wont happen until Jesus Kingdom is handed back to God.
G.H. Lang informed us that the Greek word does not have to carry the force of losing possession of that which is delivered.
So my question stands.... when that happens, will you then turn your devotion to Jehovah and worship him rather then Jesus?
Since the moment I met Jesus my devotion has been on Jehovah.
Edited by jaywill, : No reason given.
Edited by jaywill, : No reason given.
Edited by jaywill, : No reason given.
Edited by jaywill, : No reason given.
Edited by jaywill, : No reason given.
Edited by jaywill, : No reason given.

This message is a reply to:
 Message 514 by Peg, posted 11-17-2009 2:33 AM Peg has not replied

  
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