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Author Topic:   Euthypro Dilemna
iano
Member (Idle past 1968 days)
Posts: 6165
From: Co. Wicklow, Ireland.
Joined: 07-27-2005


Message 149 of 181 (541122)
12-31-2009 5:59 PM
Reply to: Message 146 by DevilsAdvocate
12-31-2009 3:30 PM


Devils Advocate writes:
So you are going to obey a being in which is by nature arbitrary and from which we cannot discern what is right or wrong accept solely by whether he approves or disproves. Yes, I know you assume God is righteous/good but you really have no method to determine this except through circular reasoning.
I haven't really got the zest to re-thread this old tyre for you DA. But one last mile .. okay?
One doesn't need a "method to determine" an a.k.a. And that's all that's been done by me with the word "good" - assigning it to a.k.a. "the flavour of God's doings", "God's will" and the like (depending on the particular aspect you want to examine). When you insert that meaning into the above; where you talk of good/right/righteous (all versions of the same notion: good), your objection becomes a nonsense.
"Good" has no other meaning to me outside the one applied. Yes, there are derivatives of God's will or the flavour of God's doings which are too called good: kindness, gentleness, generosity, etc. When we do these things is it because of the image and likeness of God in which we are made expressing itself - and being derivative of God's will, those attributes and actions are also known as 'good'.
And so there is no euthypro dilemma for me.
I've not got time to deal with the rest of your post now. Perhaps you could address the above and formulate a response in the light of this 'new' info.
Edited by iano, : No reason given.

This message is a reply to:
 Message 146 by DevilsAdvocate, posted 12-31-2009 3:30 PM DevilsAdvocate has not replied

  
iano
Member (Idle past 1968 days)
Posts: 6165
From: Co. Wicklow, Ireland.
Joined: 07-27-2005


Message 155 of 181 (541180)
01-01-2010 11:51 AM
Reply to: Message 146 by DevilsAdvocate
12-31-2009 3:30 PM


iano writes:
Yet one point of goodness (in the sense of your dealing with the flavour of God) has already been furnished: it's use as a tool in the setting up of choice for us.
DA writes:
That is ridiculous and illogical. Goodness by your definition is an attribute of God, specifically his behavior. Therefore to say the purpose of goodness is to differentiate it from evil is like saying the purpose of the chocolate flavor of ice cream is to differentiate it from vanilla or the purpose of my blond hair is to differentiate it from brown hair. Saying it has a purpose or "is a tool in the setting up of a choice for us" implies that there is an even more fundamental principle that regulates goodness/evil that is more fundamental of God.
Goodness is another word for 'the flavour of God's activity'. For example: God tends towards punishing those who act contra his will and that experience is considered negative/undesirable/painful by those exposed to it. The flavor: negative/undesirable/painful/etc. is God's flavour when dealing with those who act contra his will. That flavour is described as good.
I didn't say the purpose of goodness was to differntiate from evil. I said one point of goodness has to do with our being provided with a choice. Goodness forms one option, evil another. The two are rendered distinguishable from each other according to God. He has given us his knowledge of good and evil. That we call what he calls evil 'good' and vice versa doesn't alter anything. What's in a name?
The fundamental principle is our being equipped to know the difference between God's view of good and evil (a knowledge of good and evil) by God. There is no implication that we need step outside that in anything I've said.
-
Really? So mentally handicapped people, children, elderly people suffering from demensia, those suffering from PTSD and the like (in other words nearly all humans on this planet) all have equal knowledge and comprehension of your stark black and white "good" and "evil"?
Children grow up. Mentally handicapped people aren't devoid of conscience. Elderly people with dementia were once young people without dementia. PTSD doesn't mean the destruction of conscience.
What you seem to be angling for is a reason to absolve folk. Whilst I've no doubt that God will take all into account - the PTSD, the desparate upbringing, man can still be judged on what he knew - however little that was. Remember that it's a persons wilful response to what they know that is posited as contributing to their decision - not whether they knew a little or a lot. In other words: a scale is balanced whether you put a gram on either side or a kilogram (of knowledge of good and evil)
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If we took a child and placed him/her in an environement in which social norms and right and wrong implications of there actions are not taught to them from birth, do you think they would have a very strong comptehension of good and evil, even if they call it something else? I think not.
See above.
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If normally decent human beings can succomb to the pressure of social experimentation for short durations of time i.e. the Stanford "Prison" Experiment, it is not a stretch in the least to understand how much of our conscience is a result of social programming from birth, though I do believe "nature" (genetics) has a role in this as well as "nuture" (social programing after birth).
Man is a sinner and everything that works to cut the shackles of conscience will result in a natural slide into depravity. Whether the social programming is an experiment at Stanford or an experiement in Nazi Germany isn't the issue. The issue is man's inherently evil nature - arrested only by conscience.
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Your god in the Bible can't even maintain consistency with his own rules and regulations in the Bible much less any human alive or dead.
You mean, no doubt, God "breaking" a commandment issued to mankind to govern mankinds dealing with each other eg: "thou shalt not kill". Given the definition of good = God's will then God is being entirely consistant. He doesn't want man to kill man and commands him so (God's will). He does, however, want to kill man for x reason and does so (God's will).
Where's the inconsistancy.
(there is, in addition, the not-too-simple problem of supposing God subject to commandments he issues to mankind to resolve. On what basis do you suppose him subject to laws issued to us to govern our dealings with each other?)
-
This coming from a God who merciliessly and indiscrimanetly murders innocent children and others in the Bible while at the same time demanding people to bow down and worship him for eternity. If this is selfless I would hate to see a real selfish entity.
God kills everyone at some point: directly or no. What's indiscriminate about it?
God can't murder - he cannot act unrighteously (per definition). And murder is classed as an unrighteous killing.
There are two ways to bow to God for eternity. Willingly with joy or willingly without. The willing with joy is obvious - those who chose for God have no issue with bowing to him. Those who will bow otherwise will do so simply because they'll get to see God as he is: Lord of all. It is in mans makeup that he bow on recognising God as he is - God designed man to be so willing. It's just that there'll be no joy involved for some - they will recognise what God's lordship means for them.
If you considered, truly considered, the scale of God as he must be were it that he did indeed create all this then you'd quake at the idea of shaking your fist at him. Not simply because he can squash you - but because your abilty to correctly evalute the truth of the matter can't hope to compete with his. All he has to do is show you the whole working of this mechanism involving your sin and his salvation - including where your arrogance/deceit/pride allowed for an alternative, God-denying mechanism - and you'll wilt.
-
You see you think your religion is simple in its beliefs when in reality it is not when you dig into this fabrication. Life is not this simple. Morality is not this simple. Humanity is not this simple. It definately is not this monocrome good vs evil fairytale you make it out to be. It reminds me of politics where one side calls anyone that opposes them liberals, socialists and communists and the other side labels the other right wing extremists. This (both religious and political) is a cop out for thinking deeply and scientifically about subjects and trying to determine the true nature of things (what is reality) rather than painting everything with an absurdly broad brush of groundless assumptions and religious/political pandaring. As Jesus himself says "What is truth?".
Jesus said "I am the truth .. and no one comes to the father except through me" About as black and white as one could possibly be.
I agree that the world isn't simple and I'm not suggesting that what's good and evil (according to God) can be worked out simply in every case. There are those difficult issues to do with young children or the severely mentally handicapped where the Bible doesn't give us pointers.
But to suppose that leaves us void of very clear direction is to err seriously.
Edited by iano, : No reason given.

This message is a reply to:
 Message 146 by DevilsAdvocate, posted 12-31-2009 3:30 PM DevilsAdvocate has not replied

Replies to this message:
 Message 157 by Briterican, posted 01-01-2010 12:45 PM iano has not replied

  
iano
Member (Idle past 1968 days)
Posts: 6165
From: Co. Wicklow, Ireland.
Joined: 07-27-2005


Message 158 of 181 (541206)
01-01-2010 1:59 PM
Reply to: Message 156 by Modulous
01-01-2010 12:18 PM


Modulous writes:
But the choice could still exist if the commandment was 'Hate thy neighbour'.
The command/influence 'love thy neighbour' (written in conscience) acts as a balance/counter to the sinful nature of man which commands/influences man to "hate thy neighbour'. Influences in both directions thus (God drawing us in one direction / our natures drawing us in the other) means you now have the set up of choice.
Had God designed conscience to command man to 'hate thy neighbour' then you'd have both conscience and sinful nature comanding man to 'hate thy neighbour'.
And so you would be bereft of choice.
(Which means you can neither chose* for what God stands for - nor can you be condemned for robotically 'chosing' for what God hates. Which renders God's Mission Unaccomplished)
-
So you claim. But it still seems to be the case that we cannot rely on our 'taste receptors', since they give us seemingly contradictory responses.
Supposing my claim is correct then what is the issue? We have an explanation for varying, contradictory morality between men. We also have (by same suppressive mechanism) a reason why the individuals own personal compass is rendered wonky. What we can conclude in the general and the individual case is that man is responsible for the state of affairs.
Note that this all fine and dandy as far as the mechanism of salvation/damnation is concerned. A man's sin is utilised in the attempt to save him (guilt and shame attach to sin and have a certain 'motive power' which drives the salvation/damnation mechanism). Or a man's sin is utilised in justifying his damnation.
Conscience.. and the suppression of it, are core drivers in this affair.
-
Actually - it is relevant by definiton. I'm not sure how you can make the claim that it is not relevant to be able to know god's will to be able to judge if a particular action is god's will or not.
Sorry - the point was framed poorly. Permit me to another attempt.
It's not all that important what name (good/bad) you attach to events/actions by way of moral judgement. What matters is what God judges them as. Which means there can exist possibilities that something you consider good are actually bad and vice versa. You may even find your self fighting for a cause that everyone and his brother thinks is bad but you think good - and God thinks good. In which case it is good.
Point being - God see's the heart. Man-judged titles don't count for anything.
-
And what is special about agape?
It happens to be a central ingredient of God's scent and the choice we're faced with involves spending an eternity around that scent or outside any trace of it.
The set up of things in this world gives us a taste of both that scent.. and it's opposite number - and all shades inbetween. And God's goal is that we get to make a choice about it. A positive pro-God choice will take the form of a hearts desire for more of that scent (without necessarily knowing that God is it's source). Or a hearts desire to be rid of the stink of it's opposite number (without necessarily knowing that God is the means of being washed clean). A negative, contra_God choice will look like the opposite of that
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So we don't need God at all?
It seems we can create the same 'flavour' by merely being selfless ourselves. Even the choice to be selfish or selfless could exist without God.
Made in his image and likeness I'm afraid. When truly expressing selflessness (and I'd challenge even ourselves to judge ourselves accurately on that) it's only because of God's image in which we are made.
We are not our own - we're Gods. And he has sat us between choice. His will empowering one direction (whenever our will remains in neutral/unexpressed on the issue) or our will empowering the other.
-
I'm not suggesting he remove the contraint of conscience at all. I'm suggesting that he tells us to hate our neighbours and keeps our 'conscience' in tact. That way we are still faced with a choice (obey god, or make life on earth easy by getting along with those that are close to us). When we realize we can't do that - we get those 'benefits' you speak of.
Has the point up top clarified this? The constraint of conscience intact means he cannot instruct us to hate our neighbour - the conscience and the instruction are one and the same thing.
-
Sounds very confused. The first part is obvious, by definition. The second part makes no sense. It isn't good because it makes something possible, it is good because God wills it/it has the flavour of god's will. That's what you said.
The greater goal stuff doesn't seem consistent with this definition.
Would it help if we used the analogy of the good involved in letting a child learn to eat. It is not willed that food end up all over the floor - indeed the parent wishes that it didn't. But that un-want is considered a necessary evil in the context of the greater want: the child learning to eat.
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What can possibly be a 'greater good' than the flavour of god's deeds?
By god's actions, 'evil' exists. Evil, therefore, has the flavour of god's actions. Therefore evil is good.
God willed to create a being with free will. That is good (clearly). But creating the potential for evil isn't creating evil anymore than placing a rock at a high place creates kinetic energy.
The being created evil in the very choosing against God's will (clearly). There is no basis for saying it was God's will that a being choose against God's will. All we can say it it was God's will that the being was able to chose against God's will)
-
I'm not sure we're getting very far here.
You argue a choice needs to be possible, but I don't see any reason it has to be the choice that we have and not some other choice.
Hopefully this will be now clearer: balance of influence means opposing influences love vs. hate neighbour. Your suggestion hate neighbour (via God power) vs. hate neighbour (via sinful nature power) isn't, you'll surely agree, a choice.
-
You seem to indicate that god is ultimately a slave of his own flavour or 'nature' which implies that goodness could exist without god.
God can't not be God, true. But I'm not sure how you arrive at the second statement given that goodness is merely the flavour of God. Without God there is no God flavour surely?
-
But you argue that this isn't the case. You seem to argue evil is bad, but it was god's actions that generated the possibility of evil which makes it good.
I'm no Socrates, but I'm fairly sure this isn't the coherant, consistent understanding he was looking to take into the courtroom.
Hopefully much has been clarified. If not then by all means probe.
-
* One doesn't choose for God as such. As pointed out, a move in the direction of God's will is a function of God's power drawing + your silent not activating against. You will activates in only one direction - away from God.
Edited by iano, : No reason given.
Edited by iano, : No reason given.
Edited by iano, : No reason given.

This message is a reply to:
 Message 156 by Modulous, posted 01-01-2010 12:18 PM Modulous has replied

Replies to this message:
 Message 161 by Modulous, posted 01-01-2010 5:04 PM iano has replied

  
iano
Member (Idle past 1968 days)
Posts: 6165
From: Co. Wicklow, Ireland.
Joined: 07-27-2005


Message 160 of 181 (541232)
01-01-2010 4:46 PM
Reply to: Message 159 by Iblis
01-01-2010 2:41 PM


Re: Son Goku & iano
iblis writes:
Hi iano, I'm dragging the Trinity in here .. I'm going to summarize the dilemma again.
Fair enough.
-
OR goodness is merely a word for whatever the will of God commands, in which case the claim that "God is good" is just a syllogism, with no real substantive meaning at all. This is similar to saying "My dad is the source of my Y chromosome.
There are various angles to this attribute ' good', various ways in which we can examine it. In this case, the statement "God is good" would be addressing mankind, who understand (and to large degree, agree on what globally constitutes..) the notion of "goodness". This statement tells them that the centrepoint of this general notion - from which the myriad of man-opinionated goodnesses derive .. is God. That all their subjective paths regarding goodness devlolve from one objective summit.
You are incorrect in saying that goodness has no substantive meaning. The working definition of good used of late (looking at another angle of goodness being sourced in God) has been "the flavour of God's doings". A flavour is a substantive thing. Ask the Midianites.
-
The position that you are taking, that the will of God is what created our sense of goodness at all etc., regardless of how true it may be in your worldview, simply looks like fence-sitting in regard to the actual dilemma. It's not a solution, merely avoidance of the problem, which reduces God to a cypher.
How so, given that we can expand on what this flavour looks (I mean tastes ) like? Indeed, I've gone so far as to give a key ingredient of it to Modulous. The flavour of agape love-driven kindness, generousity, patience, etc. are substantive things - perhaps not always easy to identify as applying in the individual case - but no matter, it's not vital that we can prove that the love behind the action is agape.
-
The normal theological solution to problems like this one is the Trinity. This makes it possible to postulate a) goodness, beyond our judgement, as the arbitrary nature of God (the Father); b) goodness as something external to himself, which can be submitted to by God (the Son); and c) goodness as a mediated relation between the created and the creator God (the Spirit).
What's keeping you from using the tools you have for arguments like these? I'm a wicked sinner, why is my understanding of theology and logic so much better than yours?
Ockams Razor?
Edited by iano, : No reason given.
Edited by iano, : No reason given.

This message is a reply to:
 Message 159 by Iblis, posted 01-01-2010 2:41 PM Iblis has replied

Replies to this message:
 Message 163 by Iblis, posted 01-01-2010 7:28 PM iano has replied
 Message 167 by Otto Tellick, posted 01-03-2010 7:36 PM iano has replied

  
iano
Member (Idle past 1968 days)
Posts: 6165
From: Co. Wicklow, Ireland.
Joined: 07-27-2005


Message 162 of 181 (541248)
01-01-2010 7:05 PM
Reply to: Message 161 by Modulous
01-01-2010 5:04 PM


Modulous writes:
So why couldn't..
The command/influence 'hate thy neighbour' (as written in conscience) acts as a balance/counter to the sinful nature of man which commands/influences man to "love thy neighbour'. Influences in both directions (God drawing us in one direction / our natures drawing us in the other) means you now have the set up of choice.
That kind of nature isn't the nature Adam plumped for with his free-willed choice (with that nature being passed on down to his offspring). The sin captive, contra-God nature arises naturally from a freewilled contra-God choice. Choose death and death you shall have.
Interestingly, in the very fruit of his falling (and loosing free-willed choice), is contained the means whereby choice of a slightly different construction is rendered to Adam (and us). Eating of the fruit lost him his free nature - but gained him conscience. Which puts Adam in precisely the same position as all his offspring - in need of salvation and equipped to choose "yea or nay".
Salvation being by sacrifice-powered grace alone gives a number of arguable benefits:
- it clears the way for man to love God totally, no holds barred. Man's love cannot be diluted by his having done something to merit the benefits of salvation. By grace alone "so that none can boast" as Paul puts it.
- it permits saved man to be content in whatever position God finds fit for man, eternally. Man has nothing but wrath to look forward to - anything better than that is a bonus. That this position is as elevated as it is (adopted) sons of God is astounding. Yet that position sees God in his rightful place before man: Sovereign.
-
I say it is moral to kill my grandmother who is suffering.
but for some reason that other person is saying I shouldn't.
Who is listening to the god nature and who is listening to sinful nature and how can we tell which we are doing?
All that matters to God is your hearts motivation in the matter. He knows the equipping you've had to evaluate according to his measure. And he'll take note of whatever answer your heart gives in the matter whilst taking all other influences into account. All the rest is noise.
One thing is sure: you will make a decision one way or the other and you will have a motivation(s) for making the one you make. And God will see.
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This seems to me to be as much as a shrug of shoulders as we can get. You have us making choices between god's way and our way, but then we don't necessarily know which is which but sometimes we might think we know even when we don't.
As I'm sure I've said at some point in this discussion; the mechanism of your salvation/damnation doesn't require that you even believe in God's existance prior to your salvation. Still less does it matter that you can't ascertain God's will in this matter.
You'll make the choice according to God-powered, sin-dulled conscience, influenced by a sinful nature that is geared to seek it's own interests first (whatever you believe). And that choice will be entered into the mechanism. And the salvation/damnation mechanism will roll onwards.
Remember I said that sin is utilised by God in his atttempt to save a person? It's not that choosing anti-God is necessarily terminal in the case of your granny - indeed, it may well be your sinning here is the sin that breaks the camels back of your rebellion against God. And so you will be saved.
Sin Saves!
(an analogy occurs to me which deals with this. Consider yourself in rebellion as a wooden fence post stuck well into the ground. The farmer who wants to free the post utilises a rocking back and forth motion. Likewise, the mechanism of salvation utilises your following consience (good) and your not doing so (evil, sin) as a rocking back and forth motion aimed at releasing you from your captivity.)
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Maybe so. But I see no reason to suppose that selflessness cannot exist without a deity.
Fair enough. But such a notion lies outside the scope of this discussion I think.
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What is evil? Evil is doing that which is against god's will.
Doing that willingly so (to dot an 'i').
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God created beings that can go against god's will (and will according to your theology, we WILL DEFINITELY not live up to god's standards). It is therefore good to go against god's will, by definition.
This is like over-balancing a rock at the top of a cliff and claiming that it wasn't your actions that resulted in it falling.
God created beings (Adam and Eve) with potential to create evil. Providing them that potential was good (by definition). But it doesn't follow that the product created by Adam was good. We need to differentiate between what's good and what's necessary.
That post-Adamic mankind will surely sin is merely a consequence of Adams choice delivered upon by God - as promised.
Adam wasn't sure to sin -the rock was left perfectly balanced for Adams own will to freely decide which way to topple it. No over-balancing need apply.
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I've eaten Strawberry ice cream which had never even seen a Strawberry. I see no reason to suppose that if my actions are called 'grib' that without my existence nobody could do the same actions as me.
But ice-cream that has never seen strawberries isn't strawberry flavoured Mod. It's something-else masquerading as strawberries flavoured. Similarily, without God there can be no God flavour.
Edited by iano, : No reason given.
Edited by iano, : No reason given.
Edited by iano, : No reason given.

This message is a reply to:
 Message 161 by Modulous, posted 01-01-2010 5:04 PM Modulous has replied

Replies to this message:
 Message 165 by Modulous, posted 01-03-2010 12:50 PM iano has replied
 Message 175 by Son Goku, posted 01-15-2010 9:39 AM iano has replied

  
iano
Member (Idle past 1968 days)
Posts: 6165
From: Co. Wicklow, Ireland.
Joined: 07-27-2005


Message 164 of 181 (541277)
01-02-2010 6:00 AM
Reply to: Message 163 by Iblis
01-01-2010 7:28 PM


Re: Son Goku & iano
iano writes:
"the flavour of God's doings". A flavour is a substantive thing. Ask the Midianites.
Iblis writes:
More about this please, as you get the chance in working your argument.
Okay. Suppose you are a sinner on whom God visits his wrath after Judgement. The "flavour of his doings" will in the first instance be experienced as negative, unpleasant. This doesn't alter it being good however. There will also be the sense of harmoniousness about your suffering - because installed in you (by God) is a mechaniism which finds it harmonious that evil-doing attract punishment.
Unpleasant/harmonious - the flavour of God's doings.
Another example involves the believer who might be going about his daily business when God reveals his glory ever so slightly. It might be revealing how it is that he has worked for the benefit of the believer in a way hithertoe unrealised by the believer, or it might be an strong sense of his presence. These things are experienced as joy and peace by the believer: "God is there, is on my side, will never leave me - no matter what"
Peace/joy - the flavour attached to God's doings.

This message is a reply to:
 Message 163 by Iblis, posted 01-01-2010 7:28 PM Iblis has not replied

  
iano
Member (Idle past 1968 days)
Posts: 6165
From: Co. Wicklow, Ireland.
Joined: 07-27-2005


Message 166 of 181 (541437)
01-03-2010 3:58 PM
Reply to: Message 165 by Modulous
01-03-2010 12:50 PM


Mod writes:
I have no idea how that is meant to answer the question.
The question was:
quote:
So why couldn't..
The command/influence 'hate thy neighbour' (as written in conscience) acts as a balance/counter to the sinful nature of man which commands/influences man to "love thy neighbour'. Influences in both directions (God drawing us in one direction / our natures drawing us in the other) means you now have the set up of choice.
A nature that influences man to love his neighbour isn't a sinful nature, it's a godly (god-aligned) nature. And the reason man has an ungodly nature arose out of the first man choosing that nature. That's why it couldn't..
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All that matter's to God is whether he would have done likewise. I appreciate that, but that doesn't help us to determine what is good. It seems you are conceding that you can't know what is right and what is wrong.
I can hone my knowledge .. I'm a believer and have an workshop manual on the subject. You're in a slightly different position but by no means helpless.
You appear to be conflating two things: knowing what is the case and proving what is the case (to even yourself). But you don't have to "determine" what good is - what good is, is installed in you and operates in your decision making process. We're calling that knowledge-reporting device conscience in this discussion. I've already described how different viewpoints on 'good' arise from apparently different consciences (the original, God-supplied conscience is the same in all cases but suppression of conscience results in variation of outlook developing - kind of like variation in species developing from a common ancestor ).
That there is no way to objectivize what is good is, isn't relevant to anything important that I can think of. Perhaps you could suggest where objective knowledge would be essential in a way that matters to your salvation/damnation (the first critical issue facing you outside of which nothing else much matters)
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So - we're agree that by attempting Aquinas' false dilemma argument the argument results in us having no knowledge of what is good or not.
The point above indicates why I don't agree. We have the knowledge of what is good or not. We just can't objectivize it.
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If God didn't want beings that did things that were against his will, he wouldn't have created them.
He didn't create them. They created themselves through exercise of their free will. God, as I say, created potential. That potential chose to bring about the rest.
There is what God wills and there is what is necessary to bring about his will. Creating the potential for choosing against God is a necessity if it is God's will to create people with the potential to choose for God.
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So it has the flavour of God's doing which means that it is good.
Yes. God delivering up on promised consequences and enabling those consequences to be played out is good. Wrathful expression against evildoing is good. Even we (most of us) agree with that principle.
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Yes it is. It tastes like strawberries.
Then by all means call it like strawberry flavoured ice-cream.
"They have become like us - knowing good from evil". Man like God isn't man the same as God.
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But something could 'taste' the same, without there being god, right? Just like we could have something that tastes exactly like strawberries even if strawberries were extinct.
Sure you could approximate strawberries to a good degree. "Like" isn't "same" however.
I'm not sure what point that makes though?
Edited by iano, : No reason given.
Edited by iano, : No reason given.

This message is a reply to:
 Message 165 by Modulous, posted 01-03-2010 12:50 PM Modulous has seen this message but not replied

  
iano
Member (Idle past 1968 days)
Posts: 6165
From: Co. Wicklow, Ireland.
Joined: 07-27-2005


Message 168 of 181 (541587)
01-04-2010 4:31 PM
Reply to: Message 167 by Otto Tellick
01-03-2010 7:36 PM


Re: "objective summit"?
iano writes:
.. the statement "God is good" would be addressing mankind, who understand (and to large degree, agree on what globally constitutes..) the notion of "goodness". This statement tells them that the centrepoint of this general notion - from which the myriad of man-opinionated goodnesses derive .. is God. That all their subjective paths regarding goodness devlolve from one objective summit.
Otto Tellick writes:
So, to start with, you do accept the notion that there is some "basic set" of behaviors / attitudes / emotions that humans will generally agree to as "good", regardless of the absence, presence or particular variety of religious beliefs in their various cultural environs (granting that cultures, and individuals within a given culture, can vary from the "norm", for whatever reasons and to whatever extent).
Sure.
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Then you say that this basic set comprising goodness has been defined and established in advance by your particular deity (putting aside all the obfuscating details involving the Trinity).
In so far as the "basic set" matches the set established in advance by God, yes.
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It stands to reason that any religious believer of any Abrahamic faith, or any other religion, would hold the view that some deity is the ultimate creator of goodness, if only by virtue of needing to posit a deity in the first place, to fill the role of "creator".
Sounds reasonable enough.
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But I really don't understand your use of the phrase "one objective summit." To say there is something "objective" about invoking any deity as a creator of anything is to misuse the term "objective". I see no reason to argue with the definition provided by the Wiktionary:
The first one seems to fit reasonably well
quote:
1. Of or relating to a material object, actual existence or reality.
The context of the use of "objective" involves a discussion in which God is presumed to exist for the sake of argument (see the set up of the Eutypro Dilemma: "But if God is good then..." necessitating God's existance for the sake of discussion). And so the assertion is made that mens subjective moralities (which share areas of agreement leading to the basic - though by no means universal - set) are various paths which have devolved (degraded) from a single objective reality, to whit; God.
-
So, observing the fact that religions and ethical codes across human cultures tend to share a common set of values for "good" and "bad" things is objective. Observing the fact that many cultures attribute the source of "goodness" to be one or more specific deities (and many also attribute "badness" to specific other deities) is also objective. But these observations in themselves do not convey any sense of objectivity to the deities -- the deities remain immaterial and unobservable in any objective sense (as well as being mutually irreconcilable to any single entity).
Given these facts, there seems to be no basis, outside of one's personal decision to adopt your specific religious faith, for accepting your assertion that your God is the one sole and true source of goodness. There's nothing at all objective about your assertion, unless you want the term "objective" to mean the opposite of it's established definition.
Hopefully, the above has cleared things up a little. In case not, read what I say again - with my clarifying comment:
quote:
There are various angles to this attribute ' good', various ways in which we can examine it. In this case, the statement "God is good" would be addressing mankind, who understand (and to large degree, agree on what globally constitutes..) the notion of "goodness". This statement tells them that the centrepoint of this general notion - from which the myriad of man-opinionated goodnesses derive .. is God. That all their subjective paths regarding goodness devolve from one objective summit.
..that's what the message "God is good" intends to convey to man. Which is not to say men will believe that message. Unbelievers, who have no route to God's reality certaintly won't.
Edited by iano, : No reason given.

This message is a reply to:
 Message 167 by Otto Tellick, posted 01-03-2010 7:36 PM Otto Tellick has replied

Replies to this message:
 Message 169 by Otto Tellick, posted 01-04-2010 6:40 PM iano has replied

  
iano
Member (Idle past 1968 days)
Posts: 6165
From: Co. Wicklow, Ireland.
Joined: 07-27-2005


Message 171 of 181 (541664)
01-05-2010 2:10 AM
Reply to: Message 169 by Otto Tellick
01-04-2010 6:40 PM


Re: "objective summit"?
iano writes:
The context of the use of "objective" involves a discussion in which God is presumed to exist for the sake of argument...
Otto writes:
Perhaps you'll say that I'm just being too picky about lexical semantics here, and we'll end up agreeing to disagree on this point -- though I can't help concluding that there would be little or no support for you among competent speakers of English, because yours is still an incorrect usage of the term.
Have those competant speakers of English had God turn up 'at their door'. And if so, how do they figure to use one of his inventions to deny him a place in his reality? Perhaps you mean that English has become the preserve of that philosophical view which supposes reality limited to the empirically demonstratable (whether in fact or in principle)? In which case, there is no reason to agree to differ - we can simply cite non-aligning worldviews. Neither demonstrable.
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When a thing is "presumed to exist for the sake of argument", this does not qualify the thing as a material object, or as having any reality or actual existence. It is simply acknowledged as something that can be talked about; it is accepted as an "operand" in the various syntactic "formulas" of assertions that make up a discussion; it's a mental construct whose attributes can only be established by linguistic expression, never by direct and sharable sensory experience.
Granted. And my use of the word 'objective' found it's place between those parenthesis. Once something is presumed to exist for the sake of argument, it is presumed objective for the sake of argument too. No?
Mind that 'presuming for the sake of argument' whilst not qualifying, doesn't disqualify the objectivity of the thing presumed. The position taken is neutral on both sides.
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As something "presumed to exist for the sake of argument", the entity you call God is entirely equivalent to things like "the square root of negative one", "the edge of the universe", "the pillars of the earth", and so on.
I'm not sure I'd agree. Is it possible that the square root of negative one exists? Is God the same as something that demonstrably doesn't exist (like the pillars of the earth?)
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The possibility that this or that person in a discussion is willing to assert a profound and unshakeable belief that such an entity exists does not make a whit of difference as to the absence of objectivity.
Granted. Hopefully clarified.
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I guess I'm just requesting, as clearly as I can, that you not use the word "objective" in reference to God, because the word just doesn't work that way. (You got a problem with that? )
I suppose I do. There's no way that I know of whereby I can certify the objectiveness of any of the external-to-me reality I assume is out there: not this screen in front of me, nor that God 'above' me. Objectiveness, like goodness is, ultimately, but a flavour. And God 'tastes' as real to me as this computer screen.
Edited by iano, : No reason given.
Edited by iano, : No reason given.

This message is a reply to:
 Message 169 by Otto Tellick, posted 01-04-2010 6:40 PM Otto Tellick has replied

Replies to this message:
 Message 172 by Otto Tellick, posted 01-05-2010 4:38 AM iano has not replied

  
iano
Member (Idle past 1968 days)
Posts: 6165
From: Co. Wicklow, Ireland.
Joined: 07-27-2005


Message 177 of 181 (543221)
01-16-2010 10:10 AM
Reply to: Message 175 by Son Goku
01-15-2010 9:39 AM


Re: Equals
Son Goku writes:
This isn't really a question about anyone of your posts in particular, but about the general trend.
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Essentially we have that:
Good is that which is aligned with God.
Correct
God in his goodness created us and gives us the choice to choose to between God's good path or our own evil one.
Effectively, yes. With the end goal of us deciding whether we want to enter relationship with God and what he represents. Or whether we prefer to reject that.
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If God had just made us predisposed to choosing the good path, then we would be without free will. This would not be good, so God didn't do it.
Minor detail. Adam and Eve were equipped with free will as you suggest.
Mankind in general is fallen and hasn't got that kind of will. But this skewed situation of mans evil-tendency is counter-balanced by the effort of God (execised in us by our consciences). And so we are returned to the situation of having the equivilent of a free-will.
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I understand that man cannot be created to choose the good path, since this would make us automatons. However there is an example of a being who has free will and always chooses the good path, God itself.So my question is why didn't God create equals, other omnipotent beings with the capacity for good and free will? That way everybody would be saved. Surely it is within God's power to create another God? Why did he create lesser beings?
I'm tending towards the view that Christ was capable of sinning but didn't. In which case you've essentially the same position for everyone born as the one Christ faced.
Note that there is nothing problematic about people being condemned from God's point of view. It is as good that the damned be separated from the life of God and be punished for their evil as it is that those who choose for God spend eternity with him in his love.
God is satisfied whichever way we choose.
Edited by iano, : No reason given.
Edited by iano, : No reason given.

This message is a reply to:
 Message 175 by Son Goku, posted 01-15-2010 9:39 AM Son Goku has replied

Replies to this message:
 Message 178 by Son Goku, posted 01-16-2010 12:04 PM iano has replied

  
iano
Member (Idle past 1968 days)
Posts: 6165
From: Co. Wicklow, Ireland.
Joined: 07-27-2005


Message 179 of 181 (543236)
01-16-2010 1:54 PM
Reply to: Message 178 by Son Goku
01-16-2010 12:04 PM


Re: Equals
Son Goku writes:
This essentially answers my query. I was wondering at first why wouldn't God want more beings who were saved. As you said however those who are punished are also satisfying God's will, hence it is good.
Good that this answers your query.
I'd merely note that I see God's activity and desire as operating in various tiers (just as ours does). God's primary want is that all get to choose (love demands that we can). His being love wants that all would choose him (this being a secondary want). His being wrath is justified in it's expression that those who choose against also have wilful sin on their account.
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What you have said above would not be what most Christians would say. Most churches believe in our total free will. You however disagree with them on this point.
Although not a Calvinist (and rather detesting their Predestination doctrine) I am with them when they say that scripture points to the evil, sin-enslaved will of man. A will that by itself, is anything but free. The Reformed church is rather a large section of the total non-Roman church.
Their opposite number in the protestant camp, the Arminians, seem to pull a thing called 'prevenient grace' out of the ether in order to make possible a just, fair God (according to the almost universal sense of fairness that mankind shares).
In my own experience, the rest of the church seems to assume a freewill for the same reason of supposing a just God without having a clear scriptural reason for supposing so. Or they simply don't consider the question at all.
Me? I arrive at a just, fair God (ie: a justness that which would cause men to nod in agreement) by slightly different means. Man's will enslaved and leaning always towards sin - if left to it's own devices. But it not left so. A balance is applied via the God-sustained force of conscience so as to arrive us at a as-good-as free will. Such a will differs not in essence from a commoner-garden freewill other than at a singular point: with a standard, Adamic free will, the credit for a mans salvation rests with himself - he wilfully chose for God. With this post-fall free will, the credit for a mans salvation goes to God - for God is the drawing force (conscience) which results in a man arriving at His shore - if it that he arrives there.
It's an important detail (which is vital in all kinds of important ways) but not one that need deflect us too much from the notion of us having a free will. For all intents and purposes, we have.
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Let us take it as given that God exists.
Let us indeed. I like discussions which progress along those lines
-
Essentially we have what they are saying and what you are saying. My only difficulty is that there seems to be no way to decide who is correct or not. You are stating the above as if it was certainly the case, however I know several theologians who would disagree with you. There seems to be very little in the way of some agreed upon standard where we can see who is closer to the truth. We can't ask God directly, ultimately you are interpreting the scriptures with no way of knowing if your interpretation is becoming increasingly more accurate.
This is true and from my perspective it matters little. I am saved by grace (something which all my protestant brethern are all agreed upon) not by my doctrine. After that, there is the matter of our interest in the way Goddidit.
I wouldn't agree with you that a particular theology can't be assessed for accuracy. The way I see it, the theology improves as the number of appeals to mystery/scripturally baseless assumptions approaches zero. To think of an obvious example:
Calvinism's famous TULIP tells us that the basis for God applying salvation to a person is Unconditional on anything that person does/wills/says. But they neither tell us what God's criterion for selecting a person actually is. Nor can they exclude all possible conditions a person might possibly meet. And so the U part of TULIP, Unconditional Election, relies on a scripturally-baseless assumption.
This is in essence the problem, I'm not actually sure what Christianity is. Two different people could give me two totally different answers as to:
(a)The nature of Christ
(b)The nature of sin
(c)The nature of humans and their free will
Almost to the point of them being quite different religions and yet both will say "this is what the Bible says", "this is Christianity" and both will have reasonable arguments for their case.
Maybe I have this wrong though, maybe there is some obvious way of telling who is closer to the truth, but I can't see it.
I can see the problem. It seems to me though that there are only two possibilities.
1) God is just in a sense which makes sense - in which case, you don't have to worry about a thing. The mechanism of salvation is his and he will ensure you are exposed to it as fairly and squarely as any other person
2) God isn't just in a sense which makes sense. In which case you're in the same boat as everyone else: you're at the mercy of a capricious (should I say Calvinist?) God. There's little to be done about it.
Although I'm supposing the first, and would suggest that if interested you follow the path that resolves whatever objections to God you may have - given that arrival at God would naturally result in all objections nullified, I'm not of the opinion an understanding of the correct mechanism of salvation is necessary in order that you be saved. And in this I think my brethern of all shades would agree.
To sum up:
Even if God exists, how do I know* that your personal theology isn't just completely wrong. I don't intend this in an insulting way.
*By know I mean within reasonable doubt, I don't mean 100% certainty.
I suppose the dissolution of more of your objections than any other theology would be one way in which you might find satisfaction. Not, I repeat, that you are saved or damned by your attaching yourself to this, that or the other theology (according to my theology at least). Might it be that this very last sentence resolves at least one of the objections you might have ("what about the sheepherder up the side of a mountain in Tibet who never heard and will never hear of Jesus Christ")?

This message is a reply to:
 Message 178 by Son Goku, posted 01-16-2010 12:04 PM Son Goku has replied

Replies to this message:
 Message 180 by Son Goku, posted 01-16-2010 5:33 PM iano has replied

  
iano
Member (Idle past 1968 days)
Posts: 6165
From: Co. Wicklow, Ireland.
Joined: 07-27-2005


Message 181 of 181 (543317)
01-17-2010 9:04 AM
Reply to: Message 180 by Son Goku
01-16-2010 5:33 PM


Re: Equals
Son Goku writes:
The only question I have remaining is the following:
Let us imagine that a Muslim had given me as good an answer to my theological questions about Islam. That is he had convinced me of the internal consistency of what he was discussing.
I am now faced with two internally consistent belief systems. How do I go beyond this to the point of actually believing? How do I move beyond this acknowledgment of two sensible "meta-stories" into an acceptance of the truth of one of them?
Is this component faith? How do I justify this faith? And how do I know which one I should have faith in?
I realise that I may be asking unanswerable questions or asking questions which require you to write a personal theological guide for me. If so, don't worry about it.
It wouldn't be possible for me to write a personal theological guide given that God's dealing with each person (w.r.t. salvation and according to 'my' theology) deals with the individuality of personhood. Each persons path to him is tailor-made. Unique. That said, it is possible, I think, to provide satisfactory answers to your questions by outlining the global sequence of events in salvation w.r.t. recognition of the theology of God as true. That sequence would be common in (I think) all cases - even if the detail of each persons case is unique.
I acknowledge the dilemma posed. You would indeed arrive at a dead end in the quest for truth via the route of an internally consistant theology - assuming you could afford the time and study required to safely conclude internal consistancy in as few as even two cases. Fortunately, in 'my' theology, the route to salvation - and subsequent arrival at the Truth - doesn't depend on your correctly evaluating competing theologies. Indeed, it doesn't depend upon your efforts at all. Rather, the general sequence of events involved in your arriving at the truth of God's theology is such that you would be;
a) firstly saved by God - quite aside from what you know or don't about his theology.
b) then you would have revealed to you, by God, the existance of God - resulting in your believing IN God. Thereafter, but not at all critical to your salvation, is your embarking down the path of discovering the theology of God (aided in your travels by God). This latter task with a view to building you up in faith and equipping you for the work God has in mind for you.
A few things arise immediately from this in relation to your questions:
quote:
I am now faced with two internally consistent belief systems. How do I go beyond this to the point of actually believing? How do I move beyond this acknowledgment of two sensible "meta-stories" into an acceptance of the truth of one of them?
You don't. You are first saved - apart from such considerations, then you believe the truth of Christianity and the falsity of Islam because it is revealed to you that that is the case.
quote:
Is this component faith? How do I justify this faith? And how do I know which one I should have faith in?
Apart from the sequence above, the only faith that would be possible to express at this point would be blind, subjective faith. But according to the sequence above your faith is post-salvation, sighted, evidenced, objective - because God is doing the self-revealing and the pointing to the truth* of Christianity and falsehood of eg: Islam.
It should be clear than there is no necessity that you be exposed to the theology of God in order that you be saved. This permits the salvation of those who have never and will never hear of God, Jesus Christ, the Bible, etc.
On faith.
There is the Dawkins & Co definition of faith (blind, unevidenced). And there is the biblical definition of faith. Hebrews 11:1 describes biblical faith as being synonymous with evidence.
"Faith, the substance of things hoped for, the evidence of things not seen".
*It is important to note that whilst God does reveal his existance to the saved and that the Bible is his message/guide/instruction/explanation/theology, it is possible to navigate a myriad of paths through the Bible. That I may have a different interpretation than say jaywill doesn't preclude myself and jaywill recognising ourselves as brothers in Christ.
Edited by iano, : No reason given.

This message is a reply to:
 Message 180 by Son Goku, posted 01-16-2010 5:33 PM Son Goku has not replied

  
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