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Member (Idle past 2322 days) Posts: 2870 From: Limburg, The Netherlands Joined: |
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Author | Topic: 0.99999~ = 1 ? | |||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||
Dr Adequate Member (Idle past 312 days) Posts: 16113 Joined: |
Hi Dr A Curiously you have just proven that you have not read my post in context. It was intended as satire?
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cavediver Member (Idle past 3671 days) Posts: 4129 From: UK Joined: |
I guess it's commendable, Rrhain, in some sort of twisted way, but you are so wrong in your beliefs here.
All evidence is on my side, and NONE on yours. You have failed already. You of all people should realise that you CANNOT teach a pig to sing... Edited by cavediver, : No reason given.
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Son Goku Inactive Member |
Straggler writes:
Funnily enough in a way there is nothing wrong with this. There are mathematical systems with 1 > 0.999..., such as a cute system I found out about in Nottingham called Hackenstrings. It's just not true in the real numbers because of how they are defined. 1 > 0.999... by an infinitesimal amount sounds more intuitively reasonable than saying 1=0.999RThe problem with mathematical systems which do have 1 > 0.999..., is that you can't create calculus with them. Straggler writes:
Yeah, infinity is definitely wierd.
The concept of infinity doesn't come naturally. What's more if we are going to accept infinity as a reasonable concept then it also intuitively seems no more or less reasonable to accept the concept of infinitesimal. Straggler writes:
Oh don't worry, I know you're not arguing. I'm glad you found the explanation that worked for you in asymptotes, for me it was a formal definition of the reals that made me understand it. At the time I didn't really understand what real number were mathematically, I just had some intuition about them being rationals and irrationals put together. It's funny how it's often just a case of the right picture for the right person. Yep I accept that. I am simply arguing out of bloody minded obstinacy at this point. Not because I think I have a mathematical case for refuting anything being said here. But it is interesrting looking at ones own thought processes and trying to work out why something that is so logically provable seems intuitively so wrong. Edited by Son Goku, : Clarity.
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Son Goku Inactive Member |
Dr Adequate has already outlined my logic, so rather I will take the only problem you seem to have:
Jon writes:
First of all, in later posts than this one, you appear to be getting hung up on the word real. The real in real number means nothing more than the complex in complex number. In the Renaissance it was chosen for a reason, to contrast with the recently discovered square roots of negative numbers. However it has no meaning now. I give you extra credit for more cleverly disguising it this timethat .9999| is a real number. 0.999... is a real number because you can prove that the sum it represents converges to a finite value. That's all there is to it.Take the following facts: 1. 0.999... > 0.9 2. 0.999.. < 1.1 3. As every additional 9 is added, 0.999.. only grows larger. So 0.999... as you add every 9 is trapped between 0.9 and 1.1, it can only move in between them.Also it doesn't move up and down in between them, it only keeps growing. This growth combined with the fact that there is a upper limit to its growth (1.1), is enough to show that the series settles down to a finite value. Basically if something keeps growing it can either grow out to infinity or have its growth get slower and slower, until it settles down on a specific number. Those are the only two possibilities. The fact that 0.999.. < 1.1 shows that it cannot grow to infinity. So we're left with the other alterntive. 0.999.. is indeed a real number. Edited by Son Goku, : More explanation
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Son Goku Inactive Member |
RAZD writes:
I believe I see your question. Let's take three decimals of accuracy: Is the 0.999~ in (3) the same as the 0.999~ in (4)? Every time you do it out to the same number of decimals you get different numbers with different remainders, and the average number (4) is always between (3) and 1, where you would expect it to be.1 + 0.999 = 1.999 1.999/2 = 0.9995 Which differs from 0.999 by 0.0005. So if I use n decimals of accuracy, they will differ by 5 x 10^-(n+1). In the limit as n tends to infinity this converges to 0 and so:(1 + 0.999...)/2 = 0.999... You question is basically related to the definition of arithmetic on infinite series. Edited by Son Goku, : Little more information.
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Rrhain Member Posts: 6351 From: San Diego, CA, USA Joined: |
RAZD responds to me:
quote: Incorrect. Are you denying that division of 1.999... by 2 results in a pair-wise identity in decimal place with 0.999...? For that is what was given as justification (Message 4):
Son Goku writes: (1.99999.....)/(2) = 0.99999....., you can check this with long division. Are you saying that this statement isn't true? That 1.999.../2 <> 0.999...? You don't just get to whine about your doubt. You need to provide your evidence as to why the equality isn't true or why it is that 0.999... <> 0.999.... Is there something specific that is bothering you? If so, what is it? Be specific. Rrhain Thank you for your submission to Science. Your paper was reviewed by a jury of seventh graders so that they could look for balance and to allow them to make up their own minds. We are sorry to say that they found your paper "bogus," specifically describing the section on the laboratory work "boring." We regret that we will be unable to publish your work at this time. Minds are like parachutes. Just because you've lost yours doesn't mean you can use mine.
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Son Goku Inactive Member |
Rrhain's post just made me want to clear up the long division component of my proof. I've given a technical demonstration in post #140, but it isn't need.
1 + 0.999... = 1.999...
RAZD writes:
Just to be clear, since there are an infinite number of decimals, you should never stop and compare things at a finite point in the long division. This is because stopping at a finite point would give you a result which is the division of a number with a finite number of 9s. You proceed until the number ends (which of course it doesn't). Every time you do it out to the same number of decimals you get different numbers with different remainders, and the average number (4) is always between (3) and 1, where you would expect it to be. The first step of the division produces a 0The second step 0.9 The third 0.99 and so on.... You generate more and more 9s and you never stop and hence you have 0.999999.... as your answer.
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RAZD Member (Idle past 1432 days) Posts: 20714 From: the other end of the sidewalk Joined: |
Hi lyx2no2,
Are you questioning whether 0.999~ is the same as 0.9999~? The proof was intended to show that 1 ≡ 0.999~ by assuming that it wasn't, and then showing that this results in a contradiction. In the process it uses another version of 0.999~ and the problem is that if one is not 1 then the other isn't either and it remains half way between. One can't use the conclusion as part of the proof eh? A much simpler process is take 0.999~, multiply it by two (=1.999~), where the 9's are exactly aligned from the decimal, and subtract the original (≡ 1), QED Enjoy we are limited in our ability to understand
by our ability to understand Rebel American Zen Deist ... to learn ... to think ... to live ... to laugh ... to share. • • • Join the effort to solve medical problems, AIDS/HIV, Cancer and more with Team EvC! (click) • • •
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Stile Member Posts: 4295 From: Ontario, Canada Joined: |
Jon writes: 1 = 3/3 = 1/3 + 2/3 = 0.3333| + 0.6666| = 0.9999| ≠ 1 I don't understand this. You went logically along until the very end. I don't (logically) see any reason why you put a "≠" in instead of a "=" at the end. What would make you do so? Is it just because "0.9999|" isn't written using the same symbol as "1"? The minor proof you used here logically shows that we have two different symbols "0.9999|" and "1" and that they are both exactly equal to each other. Unless you also disagree that 1/3 = 0.3333|?But... if you disagree with that, why would you use it within your own proof? That doesn't make any logical sense either. What if we don't use the symbol "0.9999|"? What if I replace that with the symbol "#"? Then your proof reads (without the final step): 1 = 3/3 = 1/3 + 2/3 = 0.3333| + 0.6666| = # So, with equal signs all the way through... wouldn't you logically agree that the symbol "#" = the symbol "1"? Where is your disconnect? I am strongly starting to think that you do not agree that 1/3 = 0.3333|If that's so, you should not use such symbology as valid within your own explanations... it will only add confusion. It's very illogical as well.
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cavediver Member (Idle past 3671 days) Posts: 4129 From: UK Joined: |
In the process it uses another version of 0.999~ and the problem is that if one is not 1 then the other isn't either and it remains half way between. Yes, and neither are assumed to be one. However, they are reasoned to be the same as each other, by virtue of the continued long division. In the same way that you reason that your .999~ multiplied by 2 and with 1 subtracted is also the same, depsite the fact that it would not be true for a terminating decimal .9999.....9
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Jazzns Member (Idle past 3939 days) Posts: 2657 From: A Better America Joined: |
While it isn't nearly rigorous enough, a good shortcut description of the Reals is that it is the set of the Rationals and Irrationals. Numbers like pi and e, they are all Irrational. If we go with the idea of numbers like 1 and 12 being things that we can see, then we can certainly see other numbers like those and thus, the "Reals" have an effect upon our lives. IIRC, pi and e are not irrational, they are transcendental. The reals are all of the rational, irrational, and transcendental. If a nation expects to be ignorant and free, in a state of civilization, it expects what never was and never will be. --Thomas Jefferson
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Jazzns Member (Idle past 3939 days) Posts: 2657 From: A Better America Joined: |
I could have, you know, looked it up. Yea transcendentals are contained in the irrationals. My bad.
If a nation expects to be ignorant and free, in a state of civilization, it expects what never was and never will be. --Thomas Jefferson
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cavediver Member (Idle past 3671 days) Posts: 4129 From: UK Joined: |
IIRC, pi and e are not irrational, they are transcendental. They are both What they are not is algebraic.
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Son Goku Inactive Member |
Ah, now I see the problem. cavediver has already explained, but I'll make a go as well.
RAZD writes:
That's not quite what is happening, although maybe I explained it poorly. Rather I take 0.999.... and 1 and divide them by two to find the number half way between them. In the process it uses another version of 0.999~ and the problem is that if one is not 1 then the other isn't either and it remains half way between. One can't use the conclusion as part of the proof eh?By the axioms of the real numbers, if they are distinct this must result in a number different from them both. However when you perform the division you get 0.999... So the number half between 0.999... and 1 is 0.999..., which is impossible unless they are the same by the axioms. A proof of the fact follows from a bit of algebra. If I have two numbers A and B. The number halfway between them is:(A + B)/2 If this equals one of them, say B, then:(A+B)/2 = B (A + B) = 2B A = B In my case we have A = 1 and B = 0.999... and indeed:(1 + 0.999...)/2 = 0.999... So,1 = 0.999... At no point did I assume that either version (I'm still not sure what this versions of 0.999... thing is about, maybe I'm missing something) was equal to 1. Or if I did, could you point it out?
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Dr Adequate Member (Idle past 312 days) Posts: 16113 Joined: |
I don't understand this. You went logically along until the very end. I don't (logically) see any reason why you put a "≠" in instead of a "=" at the end. What would make you do so? He was c&p'ing a line from my demonstration that if we say that 0.9999| ≠ 1 then we embroil ourselves in a paradox.
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