I have never asked an intuitionist about whether 0.9999... is equal to 1.
I've answered already though, at
Message 81. It is. To me, it's like asking whether 1 - 0 - 0 - 0 ... is somehow different from 1. I cannot understand most of the arguments from the other side, they seem to be trying to say that one divided by infinity is something other than 0.
I don't have any problem with repeating decimals, they are simply a weird effect of the base system. I do have a problem with non-repeating decimals, but it is not the same problem the constructivists apparently have.
Interestingly, CatholicScientist gives a variation on the same proof that I do.
Message 7