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Author Topic:   Omphalism
New Cat's Eye
Inactive Member


(1)
Message 23 of 151 (546221)
02-09-2010 12:02 PM
Reply to: Message 6 by nwr
02-08-2010 10:25 AM


When the Omphalist declares that the age of the Earth is something very different, something completely out of context, then I can only conclude that the Omphalist means by "age of the Earth" is very different from what I mean by "age of the Earth."
And if the meaning is NOT different? Then what?

This message is a reply to:
 Message 6 by nwr, posted 02-08-2010 10:25 AM nwr has seen this message but not replied

  
New Cat's Eye
Inactive Member


(1)
Message 32 of 151 (546252)
02-09-2010 2:14 PM
Reply to: Message 29 by Straggler
02-09-2010 1:19 PM


Re: Empiricism Vs Omphalism
But instead of biblical chronology he relies on "subjective evidence" as the basis of his Thursdayist conclusion.
Has anybody actually concluded Last Thursdayism?
I've always seen it portrayed as a philisophical possibility and never a conclusion.

This message is a reply to:
 Message 29 by Straggler, posted 02-09-2010 1:19 PM Straggler has replied

Replies to this message:
 Message 33 by Straggler, posted 02-09-2010 6:05 PM New Cat's Eye has replied

  
New Cat's Eye
Inactive Member


(1)
Message 35 of 151 (546349)
02-10-2010 11:31 AM
Reply to: Message 33 by Straggler
02-09-2010 6:05 PM


Re: Empiricism Vs Omphalism
But instead of biblical chronology he relies on "subjective evidence" as the basis of his Thursdayist conclusion.
Has anybody actually concluded Last Thursdayism?
Who knows? Does genuine belief or otherwise have any bearing on the logical or evidential validity of a position?
Not really but sort of. I think you went a little too far in claiming that a Last Thursdayist has made a conclusion based on "subjective evidence". Leaving it as a philosophical possibility keeps it in the realm of unfalsifiability and that does have some bearing on the logical or evidential validity of the position.
I've always seen it portrayed as a philisophical possibility and never a conclusion.
In terms of stating ones agnosticism (or not) why would that matter?
Take what Modulus brought up in the other thread:
quote:
Actually - Dawkins differentiates between 'the evidence could point in one of two directions' agnotsticism (Temporarily Agnostic in Practice (TAP) and Permanently Agnostic in Principle (PAP)). One generally would be PAP for unfalsifiable stuff but Dawkins uses this as a springboard to falsifying the premise of the design argument by arguing we shouldn't consider it PAP.
Forcing Last Thursdayism into being an evidenced conclusion would lead to TAP agnosticism while leaving it as a unfalsifiable philosophical possibility would keep it at PAP agnosticism.

This message is a reply to:
 Message 33 by Straggler, posted 02-09-2010 6:05 PM Straggler has replied

Replies to this message:
 Message 37 by Straggler, posted 02-10-2010 12:37 PM New Cat's Eye has replied

  
New Cat's Eye
Inactive Member


(1)
Message 39 of 151 (546368)
02-10-2010 1:05 PM
Reply to: Message 37 by Straggler
02-10-2010 12:37 PM


Re: Empiricism Vs Omphalism
If someone says: "It could have been...."
Then my PAP agnosticims goes: yeah, sure, whatever
If someone says: "It was...."
Then my TAP agnosticim goes: Oh really, lets look and see
Well if I say that the Last Thursdayist bases his Thursdayist conclusion on reading cloud formations rather than subjective evidence does that make you happier?
We could examine his empirical evidence to see if it leads to his conclusion.
Or are you suggesting that a Last Thursdayist should be considered as having no reason at all for making the specific claim of Last Thursday?
Its a reaction to empirical evidence suggesting something that they don't want to accept. And the response is: "Well, it could have been...."
And yeah, it could have but its doubtful.
If their response was: "No, it actually happened like...."
Then we can examine their evidence and figure out if/where they're wrong.
As I see it any omphalist of any flavour is going to claim two things:
1) That all empirical evidence pertaining to anything prior to a given date (e.g. last Thursday) is deceptive and unreliable.
2) That there is some non-empirical method of knowing when the real date of "creation" was (biblical chronology, subjective evidence, whatever)
1) I don't think they see it as being deceptive and unreliable, but rather that it is being misread because of faulty assumptions.
For example, the omphalist might believe that light was created already traveling from closer than scientists think, so when they extrapolate the current speed back they come up with the wrong answer for its source. But its the same empirical evidence and its not deceptive or unreliable... Ya know what I mean?

This message is a reply to:
 Message 37 by Straggler, posted 02-10-2010 12:37 PM Straggler has replied

Replies to this message:
 Message 45 by Straggler, posted 02-10-2010 1:45 PM New Cat's Eye has replied

  
New Cat's Eye
Inactive Member


(1)
Message 47 of 151 (546383)
02-10-2010 1:56 PM
Reply to: Message 45 by Straggler
02-10-2010 1:45 PM


Re: Empiricism Vs Omphalism
On what basis do you conclude that it is doubtful?
That they're just responding with something that allows them to maintain their a priori belief rather than something that's based on evidence.
And if thei stated form of evidence (subjective evidence, reading cloud formations, whatever) cannot be demonstrated to lead to conclusions that are any more reliable than simply guessing..........?
Then nothing. Something hasn't been demonstrated.
Although, if they had some actual reason to believe and I thought their belief was genuine, then I would be a little less doubtful than the responding one above and I'd actually look into it instead of just hand-waving it away.
Then surely their conclusion remains equally as "doubtful" as if they just claimed that Last Thursday was the point of creation for no reason whatsoever?
Sure, what's your point?

This message is a reply to:
 Message 45 by Straggler, posted 02-10-2010 1:45 PM Straggler has replied

Replies to this message:
 Message 48 by Straggler, posted 02-10-2010 2:06 PM New Cat's Eye has replied

  
New Cat's Eye
Inactive Member


(1)
Message 50 of 151 (546409)
02-10-2010 3:51 PM
Reply to: Message 48 by Straggler
02-10-2010 2:06 PM


Re: Empiricism Vs Omphalism
You seem to be advocating belief itself as some sort of "evidence" upon which to elevate some claims over others. Is this the case?
If somebody brought up Omphalism as a philisophical possibility then I would find that to be more dubious than somebody who said they observed some kind of evidence that led them to conclude Omphalism.
But since the philisophical possibility is not falsifiable then I'd be stuck at PAP agnosticism, however, the concluded Omphalism could be investigated so I'd have TAP agnosticism.
Dude you are the one making a distinction between Last Thursdayism being claimed on some form of non-empirical evidence and it being claimed for no reason at all. I don't see there being any difference in terms of validity or reliability.
Now apparently you don't either?
You've misunderstood, partially my fault due to conflation. We need to distinguish between Last Thurdayism and Biblical Omphalism.
Last Thursdayism is not a claim from any kind of evidence, it is a philosophical possibility, I have PAP agnosticism. Biblical Omphalism as stemming from the Bible, is a claim that I have TAP agnosticism to until we actually look at the evidence and form a better conclusion. Biblical Omphalism, as a response to empirical evidence in a 'it could have been' position, doesn't actually make a claim, but is left as a philisophical possibility and too I would have PAP agnosticism, but I would be doubtful because they are just basing it on a priori conclusions.
Make sense?

This message is a reply to:
 Message 48 by Straggler, posted 02-10-2010 2:06 PM Straggler has replied

Replies to this message:
 Message 52 by Straggler, posted 02-10-2010 4:11 PM New Cat's Eye has replied

  
New Cat's Eye
Inactive Member


(1)
Message 53 of 151 (546421)
02-10-2010 4:18 PM
Reply to: Message 52 by Straggler
02-10-2010 4:11 PM


Re: Empiricism Vs Omphalism
Don't assume that the evidence that hypothetically lead to omphalism is indistinguishable from guessing and my point might make more sense.
You've misunderstood, partially my fault due to conflation. We need to distinguish between Last Thurdayism and Biblical Omphalism.
Why?
Because one being an unfalsifiable philisophical possibility leads to PAP agnosticism but the other being an actual claim based on evidence leads to TAP agnosticism that can be overturned.

This message is a reply to:
 Message 52 by Straggler, posted 02-10-2010 4:11 PM Straggler has replied

Replies to this message:
 Message 55 by Straggler, posted 02-10-2010 4:44 PM New Cat's Eye has replied

  
New Cat's Eye
Inactive Member


(1)
Message 57 of 151 (546434)
02-10-2010 4:51 PM
Reply to: Message 55 by Straggler
02-10-2010 4:44 PM


Re: Empiricism Vs Omphalism
Don't assume that the evidence that hypothetically lead to omphalism is indistinguishable from guessing and my point might make more sense.
Well if this hypothetical form of non-empirical evidence that can be demonstrably distinguished from guessing exists then you have a point. If it doesn't then I am not sure that you do.
Because one being an unfalsifiable philisophical possibility leads to PAP agnosticism but the other being an actual claim based on evidence leads to TAP agnosticism that can be overturned.
If your hypothetical form of evidence exists.
Thus my questioning of anyone actually concluding Last Thursdayinsm as opposed to it just being brought up as a philisophical possibility.

This message is a reply to:
 Message 55 by Straggler, posted 02-10-2010 4:44 PM Straggler has replied

Replies to this message:
 Message 63 by Straggler, posted 02-11-2010 2:13 PM New Cat's Eye has replied

  
New Cat's Eye
Inactive Member


(1)
Message 64 of 151 (546546)
02-11-2010 2:18 PM
Reply to: Message 63 by Straggler
02-11-2010 2:13 PM


Re: Empiricism Vs Omphalism
I have had a subjective experience and on the basis of this I have concluded that the universe was omphamistically created at 1AM on December the 12th 2009. All empirical evidence pertaining to any date prior to that is illusory and unreliable albeit internally consistent. Can you explain to me why the genuineness (or otherwise) of my belief in the validity of this subjective experience has any bearing on your agnosticism towards this conclusion?
If I actually believed you then I would begin discussing your subjective experience and how it lead you to conclude omphalism before moving away from my TAP agnosticism.

This message is a reply to:
 Message 63 by Straggler, posted 02-11-2010 2:13 PM Straggler has replied

Replies to this message:
 Message 65 by Straggler, posted 02-11-2010 2:28 PM New Cat's Eye has replied

  
New Cat's Eye
Inactive Member


(1)
Message 66 of 151 (546552)
02-11-2010 2:36 PM
Reply to: Message 65 by Straggler
02-11-2010 2:28 PM


Re: Empiricism Vs Omphalism
If I actually believed you then I would begin discussing your subjective experience and how it lead you to conclude omphalism before moving away from my TAP agnosticism.
Why does the perceived genuineness of my belief have any bearing on your conclusion with regard to the evidential validity of Last Thursdayism?
Seriously I don't get where you are coming from on this at all.
My agnosticism is towards the claim, not the evidential validity.
It regards to the evidential validity, we'd be PAP agnostic because we can't really know if its right or not. There's no way to test it.
Although, I'm sure you're creative enought to come up with a tautology that will convince you there's an actual probability associated witht the claim that you can weigh against

This message is a reply to:
 Message 65 by Straggler, posted 02-11-2010 2:28 PM Straggler has replied

Replies to this message:
 Message 67 by Straggler, posted 02-11-2010 2:49 PM New Cat's Eye has replied

  
New Cat's Eye
Inactive Member


(1)
Message 68 of 151 (546561)
02-11-2010 3:01 PM
Reply to: Message 67 by Straggler
02-11-2010 2:49 PM


Re: Empiricism Vs Omphalism
Straggler writes:
Why does the perceived genuineness of my belief have any bearing on your conclusion with regard to the evidential validity of Last Thursdayism?
My agnosticism is towards the claim, not the evidential validity
Then on what basis do you judge the claim?
The evidential validity. We just haven't gotten to the evidence yet.
How can we test any omphalistic claim? Yet you have already stated that you reject some (biblical ophalism), are PAP agnostic to others (no reason at all Last Thursdayism) and are TAP agnostic to others (Last Thursdayism concluded from the reading of cloud formations).
You can't test the philisophical possibility but you can test an evidenced conclusion.
Your form of agnosticism seems more like social response to what others claim to believe than an evidentially consistent conclusion of any sort.
I still think you're trying to make it inconsistant. It seems consistant to me. I guess just keep asking honest questions if you care to understand.

This message is a reply to:
 Message 67 by Straggler, posted 02-11-2010 2:49 PM Straggler has replied

Replies to this message:
 Message 69 by Straggler, posted 02-11-2010 3:18 PM New Cat's Eye has replied

  
New Cat's Eye
Inactive Member


(1)
Message 70 of 151 (546576)
02-11-2010 4:28 PM
Reply to: Message 69 by Straggler
02-11-2010 3:18 PM


Re: Empiricism Vs Omphalism
I suspect that what you are advocating here might amount to citing belief as a form evidence in itself whether you realise it or not. But let's carry on and find out.
Yeah, to some extant. But not that its a form of evidence, just that if someone actually believes something, then I find that as more compelling to consider (i.e. approaching it with less skepticism) as an actual possibility than something somebody is just making up to make a point. You know what I mean? I figure, there has to be something that lead to their belief, so there should be something actual to consider, so there a greater possibility of them being on to something. But its more of a gut reaction, than some thought out methodology.
A form of evidence can only be considered as such if it is demonstrably superior to guessing in terms of reliability. Yes?
I don't know and don't care that much. But I'm leaning towards no because not everything has the pleasure of being able to demonstrate superiority and also simply lacking a demonstration is saying much of anything about it.
Huh? Surely you can read this and see why it might seem nonsensical? Can you explain what on Earth you mean here?
Someone makes a claim, I'm agnostic towards it. Then they provide the evidence, which I could also be agnostic towards. But if the evidence is convincing or not, then the agnosticism towards towards the evidence goes away and then the agnosticism towards the claim can be adjusted too.
I posited agnosticism towards your claim and you jumped to asking about my agnosticism towards the evidence.
quote:
If I actually believed you then I would begin discussing your subjective experience and how it lead you to conclude omphalism before moving away from my TAP agnosticism {{towards the claim}}.
Why does the perceived genuineness of my belief have any bearing on your conclusion with regard to the evidential validity of Last Thursdayism?
See?

This message is a reply to:
 Message 69 by Straggler, posted 02-11-2010 3:18 PM Straggler has replied

Replies to this message:
 Message 74 by Straggler, posted 02-16-2010 5:45 PM New Cat's Eye has replied

  
New Cat's Eye
Inactive Member


(1)
Message 78 of 151 (547222)
02-17-2010 11:52 AM
Reply to: Message 74 by Straggler
02-16-2010 5:45 PM


Re: Let's Pretend.....
I suspect that what you are advocating here might amount to citing belief as a form evidence in itself whether you realise it or not. But let's carry on and find out.
Yeah, to some extant.
Well I think this leads to inconsistencies.
I'm sure it could. But that's neither here nor there on my position on omphalism. For that, there's really not much I can add that I haven't already said in this thread.
If you are wiling to play along I’d like to pretend that I am a biblical omphalist. Is that OK?
I guess. I don't think I'm going to be able to fake my sincerety very well though.
If so I would ask you to remind us exactly on what basis you reject biblical omphalism whilst remaining agnostic to other forms of omphalism?
In Message 35, I brought up the distinction between TAP and PAP agnosticism:
quote:
Take what Modulus brought up in the other thread:
quote:
Actually - Dawkins differentiates between 'the evidence could point in one of two directions' agnotsticism (Temporarily Agnostic in Practice (TAP) and Permanently Agnostic in Principle (PAP)). One generally would be PAP for unfalsifiable stuff but Dawkins uses this as a springboard to falsifying the premise of the design argument by arguing we shouldn't consider it PAP.
Forcing Last Thursdayism into being an evidenced conclusion would lead to TAP agnosticism while leaving it as a unfalsifiable philosophical possibility would keep it at PAP agnosticism.
In Message 50 I said what would answer your question above:
quote:
If somebody brought up Omphalism as a philisophical possibility then I would find that to be more dubious than somebody who said they observed some kind of evidence that led them to conclude Omphalism.
But since the philisophical possibility is not falsifiable then I'd be stuck at PAP agnosticism, however, the concluded Omphalism could be investigated so I'd have TAP agnosticism.
quote:
Last Thursdayism is not a claim from any kind of evidence, it is a philosophical possibility, I have PAP agnosticism. Biblical Omphalism as stemming from the Bible, is a claim that I have TAP agnosticism to until we actually look at the evidence and form a better conclusion. Biblical Omphalism, as a response to empirical evidence in a 'it could have been' position, doesn't actually make a claim, but is left as a philisophical possibility and too I would have PAP agnosticism, but I would be doubtful because they are just basing it on a priori conclusions.
Because it seems to me that, your world view aside, my claim that the universe was created 10,000 years ago fully formed is just as valid as your empirical conclusion that it is billions of years old. Tell me why it isn't?
In Message 39 I wrote:
quote:
If someone says: "It could have been...."
Then my PAP agnosticims goes: yeah, sure, whatever
If someone says: "It was...."
Then my TAP agnosticim goes: Oh really, lets look and see
and
quote:
If their response was: "No, it actually happened like...."
Then we can examine their evidence and figure out if/where they're wrong.
So, where's your evidence? How did you come to conclusion that the universe is 10,000 years old?
You said you're a biblical omphalist, if you're going to respond to scientific evidence with an 'it could have been' position, then you can find my reponse above.

This message is a reply to:
 Message 74 by Straggler, posted 02-16-2010 5:45 PM Straggler has replied

Replies to this message:
 Message 82 by Straggler, posted 02-17-2010 5:42 PM New Cat's Eye has replied

  
New Cat's Eye
Inactive Member


(1)
Message 84 of 151 (547263)
02-17-2010 6:00 PM
Reply to: Message 82 by Straggler
02-17-2010 5:42 PM


Re: Let's Pretend.....
I came to on the basis of biblical chronology. I am not saying that I know this to be true. I am simply saying that this method of knowing is no less valid than your empirical methodology.
Empirical methodology put a man on the moon. What has biblical chronology done?
Isn't it obvious that empirical methodology is more valid?
If somebody proposes Last Thursdayism on the basis of no reason whatesoever how is this any different to guessing that omphalism is true and randomly picking a date that it occurred?
Huh? How could a proposition being on the basis of no reason whatsoever ever be any different than a random guess?
Yet you claim agnosticism to this form of philosophical guessing whilst rejecting my form of omphalism which has an epistemology behind it that is no less valid than your empiricism. How can you justify this?
Because empiricism IS more valid. But it says nothing to the philisophical possibility of Last Thursdayism.

This message is a reply to:
 Message 82 by Straggler, posted 02-17-2010 5:42 PM Straggler has replied

Replies to this message:
 Message 85 by Straggler, posted 02-17-2010 6:20 PM New Cat's Eye has replied

  
New Cat's Eye
Inactive Member


(1)
Message 88 of 151 (547331)
02-18-2010 9:54 AM
Reply to: Message 85 by Straggler
02-17-2010 6:20 PM


Re: Let's Pretend.....
Empirical methodology put a man on the moon.
Has it? Not if Last Thursdayism is true.
Well then neither would your biblical chronology be true.
I thought you were agnostic towards Last Thursdayism? So you don't actually know what empiricism has achieved or not achieved do you?
As an unfalsifiable philisophical possibility, we are unable to know if it is true or not, but this casts the same agnosticism on your biblical chronology as well.
All that aside, and considering what we do know, we're left with empirical methodology acheiving more than biblical chronology.
If you believe in empiricism it is very obvious. But it is equally obvious to me that God exists, that Jesus is my saviour and that the bible is the most reliable method of knowing anything. More reliable than mere temporal empirical theories.
How have you tested the reliability of the bible as a method? And what has a biblical methodology acheived?
Huh? How could a proposition being on the basis of no reason whatsoever ever be any different than a random guess?
It can't. But bidn't you say you were agnostic towards the philosophical proposition of Last Thursdayism made on the basis of no reason or evidence whatsoever?
As an unfalsifyable philisophical possibility, in an 'it could have been' sense, yes. But as an actual claim I would doubt.
Are you agnostic about all random guesses? Or do you usually consider such a method to be rather unlikley to result in reliable results?
Yes, but Last Thursdayism isn't a random guess, its philisophical proposition.
Because empiricism IS more valid. But it says nothing to the philisophical possibility of Last Thursdayism.
Well if Last Thursdayism is true empirical conclusions pertaining to any date prior to last Thursday are not valid. Are they? You are simply assuming that they are. Which is an invalid assumption if you are truly agnostic about Last thusdayism.
But this is about biblical chronology making an actual claim on the age of the universe, not just a musing on the tentativity of an unfalsifyable possibility.

This message is a reply to:
 Message 85 by Straggler, posted 02-17-2010 6:20 PM Straggler has replied

Replies to this message:
 Message 91 by Straggler, posted 02-19-2010 2:49 PM New Cat's Eye has replied

  
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