Is Jesus God?

Not at all. You have to back up. (v9-10) "He who has seen me has seen the Father; how can you say, 'Show us the Father? Do you not believe that I am in the Father and Father in me? The words that I say to you I don not speak on my own authority; but the Father who dwells in me does his works."Thomas acknowledges that god can now be seen in Jesus.

He is not equating Jesus with Jehovah. If as you agree, Paul is quoting from the book of Joel, then he is using the name of God and Jesus is never called by that name.the Isrealites never knew Jesus, he was never identified in the Hebrew scriptures. They only knew Jehovah to be their God and in the hebrew scriptures it was Jehovah who was going to save them. How was he going to do that? By sending them a Messiah, a savior.Paul is recognizing that Jehovah is the source of the Messiah and therefore he is still the source of their salvation.This is why in Acts the same quote is used by Peter to explain that Jehovah sent the Messiah, resurrected him and thru him will fulfill his promise of salvation. The apostles were not under the impression that Jesus and Jehovah were one and the same. This passage, which uses the same verse from Joel most certainly shows their belief was that Jesus was the promised Messiah whom Jehovah would send.... certainly not Jehovah himself.

Reread chapter 10:1-14. Paul most certainly is NOT calling Jesus god. It states the opposite. You must go through Jesus to be saved by god. Go verse by verse and you'll see the distinction between Yahweh and Jesus.

woooo are you now adding a whole new idea to the bible...the angels of God sin?Also you havnt addressed why numerous people inthe bible are called described as good. I listed several scriptures, but you've not addressed one.So if only God is good, and because Jesus was called good then he must be God....what about all these other people who are called good? Are they also God? Jesus had free will and he did not sin.
The angels who did sin were cast out of heaven... and when Adam sinned, he was expelled from Eden... so if a perfect man gets punished for sinning, why wouldnt a perfect angel? Why would God allow some sinning angels to remain in heaven, but others be cast out??? this is just plain confusing. So a person can sin but not be a sinner???
a spirit can sin but not be a sinner???Do you know what sin is? Can you explain it...i'd like to see where you are coming from with this.

It appears both Peg and I are up quite early.....all yours Peg. Your responses as usual are a tad more indepth than mine. Time for some coffee and to get ready for work! Edited by hERICtic, : No reason given.

Why does this surprise you, angels are created beingsWill you now deny that satan was an angel, will you deny that angels have freewill. Will you deny that scripture applies the attribute of SINLESSNESS TO ONLY GOD AND CHRIST? if christ is saying that God is good in the same way everyone else is good, then his statement makes no sense. how is ONLY GOD GOOD. You stated that God is the STANDARD of good. perhaps you could explain what you mean by that statementWith this distinction it should be obvious that Jesus is using the word good to mean sinless. Since Christ is said to be sinless and and everyother person having sinned and come short of the glory of God, even a tyro in logic would be able to see that it is iimplying that Christ is God. Your not a tyro are Peg? Well I knew you would eventually get around to answering PART OF my question, even if it was indirectly. So jesus is completely good correct?So Ill put it in another form to drive the point home for you. If jesus is sinless and and good in every respect, is there any sense in which he was not good? And if he is GOOD in every respect and not, not good, why wouldnt this make him God In each of the situations it should be clear that in the case of the man, his was an immediate on the spot decision. With Satan, would you have us believe the ridiculous situation that one evening he was completely faithful to God in his heart and the next morning, hey, Ill overthrow God today.Pride is a process and he BECAME puffed up with pride.there are to many examples in scripture where God punished immediatley (acts 5) then at times did not use expulsion and death as a punishment for others its only confusing if you dont understand scripture Peg, slow down and I and others will walk you throught it.A person that is drunk, having never drunk before, is drunk, but is not a drunkard, but not a drunkard in the sense of the daily actionA person that sins has sinned and is considered a sinner in Gods eyes, but not in the sense that there remains no more a sacrificce for the sin. They have not sinned wilfully and continuosly to the point that God has had enough of thier actionsThis is why the NT, describes a SIN, THAT IS UNTO DEATH.Sin according to 1John 3:4 is transgression of the law, Gods perfect law any of Gods law given to man. there were specific times when Joshua's hand was stayed, because God decided that a specific peoples SIN WAS NOT YET COMPLETE, that is they had not reached the point of no return, ie Ninevah. At other times, even when Abraham stood in for them (Sodom), God said No. He only can judge when this happens Are these people also described as sinless, if they are not Peg, it would only take a tyro in reasoning to see that THEY are not being described or implied to be God Is there something wrong with this biblical definition?So yes, angels sin, as was indicated by Satan. So yes, there is every reason to believe that if they have freewill, that they all have sinned, since, NOW WATCH THIS, only God is said to be GOOD and Sinless. If this is the case one would would be hard pressed to find anyother creature that has not , correct.Perhaps you are prepared at this time to find another passage that states, someone besides God, that is sinless and good in the sense Christ designated God as good and sinless.Again if there is no distinction in what Christ meant by calling God good verse anyone else, his statement makes no sense and has no application. if as you suggest that God is the standard of good, what standard is that, PLEASE DESCRIBE THAT STANDARDI await egerly your passage and your explanationEAMEdited by EMA, : No reason given.Edited by EMA, : No reason given.Edited by EMA, : No reason given.Edited by EMA, : No reason given.Edited by EMA, : No reason given.Edited by EMA, : No reason given.

Come on Peg this is getting silly and ridiculous. Why would Paul need to instruct someone to be humble by telling them that they are not equal to God? Who wouldnt already know that in the first place. who would assume they were equal to GodWhy would an inspired writer, who would know that Christ was not equal to God need to tell everyone Christ was not equal to God to get them to understand humility.but now if Christ is equal to God as he indicates and he empties himself of that nature for a purpose, now that shows humilitythe passage only makes sense as I have described it. Christ who is and was in the form of God did not consider EQUALITY something to be grasp or held on to, but he emptied himself of that nature and took on the form of a servant. Now with a simple reading which one makes more senseAgain, no one would ASSUME that christ was equal with God, unless he demonstrated those qualities, unless he was sinless, unless he recieved worship, unless we were told in no uncertain terms (Phi 2), unless God is sinless and jesus isdescribed as sinless. The parts of the puzzel fit together perfectly
it would be interesting to line up 100 people have them read the passage and see what the simple interpretation would be considered by themselvesConsider John 5:20. Now why would the writer word it such a way to confuse everyone and not use simple language that could demonstrate your point. Instead he says Christ is God and eternal. there seems to be no subterfuge or hidden language were this the only passage in scripture describing what Christ was, you may be correct and it would be believed, but it is not the only passage. the combinationof passages make it clear that Christ is indeed God come in the flesh. We have it by the story, we have it by implication and we have it by direct statements And I do not deny these passages at all, All you need to do now is provide passages that indicate, or state that any creature is SINLESS and then and only then can we say that they are GOOD THE SAME WAY GOD AND CHRIST ARE GOOD.I await your passagesEAMEdited by EMA, : No reason given.Edited by EMA, : No reason given.Edited by EMA, : No reason given.

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the context of that passage does not show Thomas to be worshiping jesus.

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Thomas affirmed Jesus as "My Lord and my God." How is this NOT worship?

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what it does show is that 'doubting' Thomas was not convinced that Jesus had risen from the dead and had been seen by the other diciples. When Jesus, in his resurrected body, proceeded to show him the wound marks, Thomas was struck with awe and came to accept that it was Jesus. His remark
"My Lord and my God" is not out of harmony with who the Messiah was.

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Isaiah 9:6 There has been a child born to us, there has been a son given to us; and the princely rule will come to be upon his shoulder. And his name will be called Wonderful Counselor, Mighty God, Eternal Father, Prince of Peace.

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the word god is simply a title, it is not a name of the Almighty. Perhaps you'd have a case if Thomas called Jesus 'Jehovah' but he didnt. He simply acknowledged that Jesus was a mighty god.

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But it doesn't say this will be His title. Rather, it says that this will be His name. And the name "Mighty God" does not stand alone. He is also given the name "Eternal Father," which suggests YHWH.

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Why would Jesus rebuke Thomas considering the Messiah was called a 'Mighty God' by Isaiah. This title is in perfect harmony with scripture and it in no way implies that Jesus is God Almighty.

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"Mighty God" and "God Almighty" are awfully close and nearly synonymous. It looks like you are trying to make too much of a distinction between them.Thomas called Jesus "God." Isaiah wrote that the Messiah would be called "God." You posed the question "Is Jesus God?" and these seem to answer your question. You even are willing to admit that Jesus is "god" but not "God," which is starting to sound like double-speak.

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Like Jesus, Elijah the prophet performed many miracles including resurrecting a boy to life. Does this mean that Elijah was also God?

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Did Elijah claim to be the source of life just before he resuscitated the boy? No.

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A number of OT prophecies of the Messiah suggest that He will be more than a man, and will in fact be God in the flesh.

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which verses would those be?

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Ps 45 is the one most pertinent to Heb 1:8. You have also mentioned Isaiah 9:6. But as I said, the OT prophecies are suggestive. The NT passages that we've been putting forth speak more clearly to Jesus' deity, so these are the ones we should focus on.

Isa. 9:6 is not about Jesus. Most Jews will state is a past event, probably refering to Hezekiah, the son of King Ahaz. Read chapter 10, it mirrors the events in chapter 9, showing its a past event.

sorry H, yes it does. Even the simplest of readings would make it very clear of its meaning. Its just like the following two verses1 John 5
20And we know that the Son of God is come, and hath given us an understanding, that we may know him that is true, and we are in him that is true, even in his Son Jesus Christ. This is the true God, and eternal life.1 Timothy 3:14 These things I write to you, though I hope to come to you shortly; 15 but if I am delayed, I write so that you may know how you ought to conduct yourself in the house of God, which is the church of the living God, the pillar and ground of the truth. 16 And without controversy great is the mystery of godliness:God[c] was manifested in the flesh,
Justified in the Spirit,
Seen by angels,
Preached among the Gentiles,
Believed on in the world,
Received up in glory.EAMEdited by MEA, : No reason given.

In Jude Vs 14 we see the expression 'holy myriads' .... Look! Jehovah came with his holy myriads"the holy myriads here are Angels....why are they called 'holy' if they are sinners? And why did some of these sinful angels get punished and expelled from Heaven, but not the myriads who still reside in heaven? In the context of the scripture, the man was using Good as a title for Jesus. It was used as a title... Jesus felt that all titles belong to God because God is the one with whom the quality of goodness originates. So Jesus did not want to take any glory that only God should recieve.How could good ever mean sinless? Good is something we do, we practice it, we apply it. Its an action. If we do something right, we have done good. So there is no way that good means sinless. because as i've shown you, numerous peole in the bible are called 'good' Are all these 'good' people God in disguise??? Jesus was the only sinless human besides the first man, Adam.No other human has ever been sinless because we are all from Adam, however, many humans have been called good because good is an action.You keep stating that Jesus designated that only God is good and sinless and your reason that because Jesus was good and sinless then he must be God.Well this is just circular reasoning. The sense in which Jesus was speaking of 'good' was in the sense that he was given the 'title' of good by the young ruler. You seem to think that he accepted that title when in fact he rebuked the man for suggesting it and reminded the young man that goodness is Gods quality...IOW Jesus was saying 'God is the source of the standard so you should only be calling God by that title' there is a distinction and i've said it over and over. Please get this point:the young ruler used it as a title for Jesus.the young ruler used it as a title for Jesusthe young ruler...Its being called good as a title that Jesus objected to. He didnt object to being called 'a good teacher' because he was a good teacher...in fact he was called good several times without any objection. So you have to ask why he objected on this occasion to being called good.the only explaination is that this man used 'good' as a title which is also how the people would address their religious teachers. They would address them with titles and we know that Jesus objected strongly to these religious teachers being given titles. The standard of good is something that God sets. Its his quality just as love is his quality.... good is Gods Moral Excellence.

Satan wanted to be equal with God and recieve worship from humans that rightly belonged to God alone.Adam and Eve wanted to decide for themselves and set the standards of good and bad because they thought they could be like God if they did so.the people who built the tower of Babel wanted to be like God and have their home in the heavens.Wanting to be like God has become a human trait. Today we want the same freedom to make our own decisions and the independence to choose for ourselves as Adam and Eve did... this is trying to be like God.Scientists try to be like God when they play around with life and try to create life through cloning and manipulate nature to create something new such as when they play with genetics.It was quite fitting that Paul councell christians not to try and be like God but rather remain humble and obedient to him. in the context of Pauls letter, he was instructing them to be humble and simply used christ as a perfect example of humility because he existed as a powerful spirit in heaven before he came to earth. He didnt have to tell them that christ was not equal to God...christians already knew who he was, they knew he was the 'son' of God.How did you manage to get "he says Christ is God and eternal" from this scripture??? and all you need to do is present a scripture that shows the faithful angels in heaven are sinners...the bible does not say anywhere that angels sin, so you know that I cannot give you a specific scripture that says this. However If you reasoned on the following scriptures you would not conclude that the angels are sinners.In this verse we see that angels who sinned are specifically mentioned. If all angels sin, why specifically mention these ones who were punished? Would God really use a sinful angel to guide the isrealites and punish them if they sinned? I doubt it very much. Recall Jesus words "let he who is without sin cast the first stone" Also you would need to explain how a sinning Angel could be called holy as they are in Deuteronomy 33:2 and Jude14. Also, how could they uphold and reflect Gods holiness if they are sinful? They couldnt do that because to sin means to fall from Gods perfect standards. IOW, if they sin, they can no longer by holy.Now i await your passages that say that all the angels in heaven are sinners.

the terms are nothing alike.Almighty God- In hebrew - El Shad.dai';
Mighty God - in hebrew - El Gib.bohr';both terms convey the idea of power or strength, but only one is used in the hebrew scriptures in reference to YWHY.the hebrew term ’El Shad.dai' is the word used when God identified himself to MosesIts never used in reference to Jesus or anyone else in the bible.Eternal Father does not imply Jehovah either. Paul explained that our earthly father, Adam, gave us death, but Jesus gives us life because he became the 'corresponding ransom'... symbolically, he switched places with Adam in order to give us life. No, god is merely a title that means 'mighty one'the angels are called gods at Psalm 8:5
Satan is called a god at 2Cor 4:3-4
the isrealite judges were called gods at Psalm 82:1 (which Jesus quoted)Jesus is rightfully called a god because he is a mighty spirit. He has authority and power. It doesnt mean he is the 'Almighty God' though. Edited by Peg, : No reason given.