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Author Topic:   Is Jesus God?
Dawn Bertot
Member (Idle past 105 days)
Posts: 3571
Joined: 11-23-2007


Message 121 of 492 (549251)
03-05-2010 10:00 AM
Reply to: Message 118 by Peg
03-05-2010 5:27 AM


In Jude Vs 14 we see the expression 'holy myriads' .... Look! Jehovah came with his holy myriads"
the holy myriads here are Angels....why are they called 'holy' if they are sinners? And why did some of these sinful angels get punished and expelled from Heaven, but not the myriads who still reside in heaven?
Ah, you are making the same mistake the rich young ruler did when he assumed that holiness proceeds from ones own actions and not from God
Again and with all due respect intended you are showingyour lack of biblical understanding, notice I did not say knowledge. You are assuming that the angels GOODNESS ITSELF is what is holding them in a position of holiness before God. It is Gods holiness and forgiveness, and Mercy that keeps them in position, not the angels actions themsef. Satan simply went to far
If all have sinned and come short of the glory of God, it can be demonstrated that angles have freewill, that certain angels rebelled against God, in a crime that would require time deception and planning, not something that would happen over night, that ONLY GOD is good, he is the standard, then it is not unscriptural or illogical to assume angels have a plan of forgiveness. Iam certain that plan is Jesus Christ. Now watch Peg.
that at the name of Jesus every knee should bow, in heaven and on earth and under the earth,
New Living Translation (2007)
that at the name of Jesus every knee should bow, in heaven and on earth and under the earth,
English Standard Version (2001)
so that at the name of Jesus every knee should bow, in heaven and on earth and under the earth,
New American Standard Bible (1995)
so that at the name of Jesus EVERY KNEE WILL BOW, of those who are in heaven and on earth and under the earth,
International Standard Version (2008)
And so, when Jesus' name is called, the knees of everyone should fall wherever they're residing.
GOD'S WORD Translation (1995)
so that at the name of Jesus everyone in heaven, on earth, and in the world below will kneel
King James Bible
That at the name of Jesus every knee should bow, of things in heaven, and things in earth, and things under the earth;
American King James Version
That at the name of Jesus every knee should bow, of things in heaven, and things in earth, and things under the earth;
American Standard Version
that in the name of Jesus every knee should bow, of things in heaven and things on earth and things under the earth,
Bible in Basic English
So that at the name of Jesus every knee may be bent, of those in heaven and those on earth and those in the underworld,
Douay-Rheims Bible
That in the name of Jesus every knee should bow, of those that are in heaven, on earth, and under the earth:
Darby Bible Translation
that at the name of Jesus every knee should bow, of heavenly and earthly and infernal beings,
English Revised Version
that in the name of Jesus every knee should bow, of things in heaven and things on earth and things under the earth,
Webster's Bible Translation
That at the name of Jesus every knee should bow, of things in heaven, and things on earth, and things under the earth;
Weymouth New Testament
in order that in the Name of JESUS every knee should bow, of beings in Heaven, of those on the earth, and of those in the underworld,
World English Bible
that at the name of Jesus every knee should bow, of those in heaven, those on earth, and those under the earth,
Young's Literal Translation
that in the name of Jesus every knee may bow -- of heavenlies, and earthlies, and what are under the earth --
Geneva Study Bible
That at the name of Jesus {k} every knee should bow, of things in heaven, and things in earth, and things under the earth;
(k) All creatures will at length be subject to Christ.
People's New Testament
2:10 That at the name of Jesus every knee should bow. That name, by the exaltation, has become the name of the King of kings. It is supreme. Hence, every knee in all the universe bows to its majesty.
Under the earth. In the underworld, hades, the abode of the dead.
Wesley's Notes
2:10 That every knee - That divine honour might be paid in every possible manner by every creature. Might bow - Either with love or trembling. Of those in heaven, earth, under the earth - That is, through the whole universe.
Jamieson-Fausset-Brown Bible Commentary
10. at the name-rather as Greek, "in the name."
bow-rather, "bend," in token of worship. Referring to Isa 45:23; quoted also in Ro 14:11. To worship "in the name of Jesus," is to worship Jesus Himself (compare Php 2:11; Pr 18:10), or God in Christ (Joh 16:23; Eph 3:14). Compare "Whosoever shall call upon the name of the Lord (that is, whosoever shall call on the Lord in His revealed character) shall be saved" (Ro 10:13; 1Co 1:2); "all that call upon the name of Jesus Christ our Lord" (compare 2Ti 2:22); "call on the Lord"; Ac 7:59, "calling upon . and saying, Lord Jesus" (Ac 9:14, 21; 22:16).
of things in heaven-angels. They worship Him not only as God, but as the ascended God-man, "Jesus" (Eph 1:21; Heb 1:6; 1Pe 3:22).
in earth-men; among whom He tabernacled for a time.
under the earth-the dead; among whom He was numbered once (Ro 14:9, 11; Eph 4:9, 10; Re 5:13). The demons and the lost may be included indirectly, as even they give homage, though one of fear, not love, to Jesus (Mr 3:11; Lu 8:31; Jas 2:19, see on [2385]Php 2:11).
Matthew Henry's Concise Commentary
2:5-11 The example of our Lord Jesus Christ is set before us. We must resemble him in his life, if we would have the benefit of his death. Notice the two natures of Christ; his Divine nature, and human nature. Who being in the form of God, partaking the Divine nature, as the eternal and only-begotten Son of God, Joh 1:1, had not thought it a robbery to be equal with God, and to receive Divine worship from men. His human nature; herein he became like us in all things except sin. Thus low, of his own will, he stooped from the glory he had with the Father before the world was. Christ's two states, of humiliation and exaltation, are noticed. Christ not only took upon him the likeness and fashion, or form of a man, but of one in a low state; not appearing in splendour. His whole life was a life of poverty and suffering. But the lowest step was his dying the death of the cross, the death of a malefactor and a slave; exposed to public hatred and scorn. The exaltation was of Christ's human nature, in union with the Divine. At the name of Jesus, not the mere sound of the word, but the authority of Jesus, all should pay solemn homage. It is to the glory of God the Father, to confess that Jesus Christ is Lord; for it is his will, that all men should honour the Son as they honour the Father, Joh 5:23. Here we see such motives to self-denying love as nothing else can supply. Do we thus love and obey the Son of God?
Isaiah 45:23 "I have sworn by Myself, The word has gone forth from My mouth in righteousness And will not turn back, That to Me every knee will bow, every tongue will swear allegiance.
"that at the name of Jesus ever knee will boe in heaven and earth"
"all authority has been given him in HEAVEN AND EARTH" His redemptive act is comprhensive in nature, time, place and character
It should be obvious from these facts that those angels that serve God have not committed crimes like that of Satan, that Satan refused to repent, that even right now, he could repent, but refuses to do so because his hatred is so strong For the God Jesus Christ
In the context of the scripture, the man was using Good as a title for Jesus. It was used as a title... Jesus felt that all titles belong to God because God is the one with whom the quality of goodness originates. So Jesus did not want to take any glory that only God should recieve.
How could good ever mean sinless? Good is something we do, we practice it, we apply it. Its an action. If we do something right, we have done good. So there is no way that good means sinless.
No Peg NOW TRY AND UNDERSTAND THIS, Good is something God does. Do you remember the passage that says that after we have DONE ALL THAT WE CAN DO WE ARE STILL LIKE DIRTY RAGS BEFORE THE LORD.
It is God that makes our actions good. When the bible implies that certain people are good, it must be compared to God himself, in which we end up being still DIRTY RAGS, UNTIL HE WASHES OUR ROBES.
Dont simply gain knowledge of scripture Peg UNDERSTAND IT
How could good ever mean sinless? Good is something we do, we practice it, we apply it. Its an action. If we do something right, we have done good. So there is no way that good means sinless.
As you can see Peg Good can ONLY mean sinless and this is what Christ meant by his statement, ONLY GOD IS GOOD. There really no good (to inherit eternal life and that was the question asked)we can do.
Try and remember the context of the question put to Christ, "What must I do to inherit eternal life" This is how Christ was responding to the question. it wasnt a question about DAILY ACTIONS
Well this is just circular reasoning. The sense in which Jesus was speaking of 'good' was in the sense that he was given the 'title' of good by the young ruler. You seem to think that he accepted that title when in fact he rebuked the man for suggesting it and reminded the young man that goodness is Gods quality...IOW Jesus was saying 'God is the source of the standard so you should only be calling God by that title'
no Peg, it is Good in the context of the question asked by the querest. Only God is GOOD enough to grant eternal life, a man cannot earn it. This is what Christ was trying to get the man to understand. You cant do it own your own
the man wanted to use his own standard of the list he gave to justify inheriting eternal life.
Yes Christ WAS accepting the title because only God is good, only God is sinless, Christ was sinless. We are made perfect in Christ (God). he is both the JUST AND JUTIFIER FOR THOSE THAT BELIEVE IN HIM
The term GOOD used to designated mans simple day to day should be used to desrcibe other actions between humans. The question asked was, "What must I do to inherit eternal life" Christ is trying to get the amn to see that only God can GRANT GOODNESS OR SANTIFICATION, BECAUSE ONLY HE IS GOOD.
there is a distinction and i've said it over and over. Please get this point:
the young ruler used it as a title for Jesus.
the young ruler used it as a title for Jesus
the young ruler...
Its being called good as a title that Jesus objected to. He didnt object to being called 'a good teacher' because he was a good teacher...in fact he was called good several times without any objection. So you have to ask why he objected on this occasion to being called good.
the only explaination is that this man used 'good' as a title which is also how the people would address their religious teachers. They would address them with titles and we know that Jesus objected strongly to these religious teachers being given titles.
In this explanation you have avoided the context and the question put to jesus. christs response applies to the question asked, not whether he did not like the title or not
He did not objected to being called good because he knew the querest did not understand the nature of his question and that the person was trying to use his own standard of GOOD his own actions as justification to inherit eternal life.
He is trying to get the man to see, as does the rest of the NT, that it is God that saves not us, not our actions. Jesus was not saying that he was not God.
Now watch this, if he, Christ is sinnless, he is the author and finisher of our faith, he IS COMPLETLEY GOOD and only God can save us, then it follows that Christ is that God.
because as i've shown you, numerous peole in the bible are called 'good'
And as I have showed you to which you have paid no attention, except to say others are called good, that jesus in this instance is using the word Good in a different sense when applaied to God, if his is not it makes no sense to make that statement,
If your reply is that God is the standard of Good and it is different than mans goodness, please explain what that STANDARD IS, how is it different.
Again if God is only good and Christ is not, please give me an example of how Christ was not good. Was there any respect in which Christ was not good . If Christ is COPMPLETLEY good would not this make him God. i dont see how you can avoid that conclusion
Please if you would like to, try and find a flaw in Gods system and my logic
Ill get to the rest of your two posts later, busy right now
EAM
Edited by EMA, : No reason given.
Edited by EMA, : No reason given.
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Edited by EMA, : No reason given.

This message is a reply to:
 Message 118 by Peg, posted 03-05-2010 5:27 AM Peg has replied

Replies to this message:
 Message 122 by Peg, posted 03-05-2010 3:22 PM Dawn Bertot has replied

  
Peg
Member (Idle past 4952 days)
Posts: 2703
From: melbourne, australia
Joined: 11-22-2008


Message 122 of 492 (549288)
03-05-2010 3:22 PM
Reply to: Message 121 by Dawn Bertot
03-05-2010 10:00 AM


EMA writes:
You are assuming that the angels GOODNESS ITSELF is what is holding them in a position of holiness before God. It is Gods holiness and forgiveness, and Mercy that keeps them in position, not the angels actions themsef.
before we go any further down this 'sinful angels' argument, could you please provide some scriptural proof that the angels who reside with God in heaven are also sinners. I really need to see that from the bible because i just do not believe a word of it.
EMA writes:
As you can see Peg Good can ONLY mean sinless
Im sorry, i cannot agree with you here. You keep ignoring those scriptures where certain people were said to be 'good' people. All those mentioned were also sinners, so please stop going down this path. What you are doing is bending over backwards to try and make the verse "Only God is good" to prove that Jesus is God. Well its not working and its completely out of harmony with the scriptures. But i'm enjoying your tenacity! :wink:
EMA writes:
if he, Christ is sinnless, he is the author and finisher of our faith, he IS COMPLETLEY GOOD and only God can save us, then it follows that Christ is that God.
God saves mankind by the sacrifice of his son Jesus. This is why Jesus is the author of our faith...he has been given as someone to look to for our forgivenss and our future hope of everlasting life.
EMA writes:
And as I have showed you to which you have paid no attention, except to say others are called good, that jesus in this instance is using the word Good in a different sense when applaied to God, if his is not it makes no sense to make that statement
I have been saying over and over that the sense in which it is being used is in the sense of it being a 'title'
what is the difference between using good as a title and using it as a description of a persons actions?
Here is the answer: A person can DO good, but they cannot BE good. Only God can be good just as God is Love. We can Love, but we cannot BE love.
EMA writes:
Again if God is only good and Christ is not, please give me an example of how Christ was not good. Was there any respect in which Christ was not good . If Christ is COPMPLETLEY good would not this make him God. i dont see how you can avoid that conclusion
John 5:19Therefore, in answer, Jesus went on to say to them: Most truly I say to YOU, The Son cannot do a single thing of his own initiative, but only what he beholds the Father doing. For whatever things that One does, these things the Son also does in like manner.
Whatever things the father does, the son does in like manner. Jesus reflected Gods qualities which means he imitated Gods goodness...he didnt create it, therefore he cannot be God.

This message is a reply to:
 Message 121 by Dawn Bertot, posted 03-05-2010 10:00 AM Dawn Bertot has replied

Replies to this message:
 Message 123 by Dawn Bertot, posted 03-05-2010 4:15 PM Peg has replied

  
Dawn Bertot
Member (Idle past 105 days)
Posts: 3571
Joined: 11-23-2007


Message 123 of 492 (549291)
03-05-2010 4:15 PM
Reply to: Message 122 by Peg
03-05-2010 3:22 PM


Im sorry, i cannot agree with you here. You keep ignoring those scriptures where certain people were said to be 'good' people. All those mentioned were also sinners, so please stop going down this path. What you are doing is bending over backwards to try and make the verse "Only God is good" to prove that Jesus is God. Well its not working and its completely out of harmony with the scriptures. But i'm enjoying your tenacity! :wink:
Let me try this once again, the scriptures say there are good people correct? It also says there "ARE NONE THAT ARE GOOD, NO NOT ONE". Now how to do we make these scriptures not contadict eachother. Well some (TRANSLATIONS) have it saying there are NONE THAT ARE RIGHTEOUSS, NO NOT ONE. cHRIST SAID THERE ARE NONE that there GOOD, except God.
Now Peg, how can the word Good not be being used in a different sense that that which is applied to God. Righteouness can only mean sinlessness, if Christ was sinless, he was Good, if he alone is Good, he is God
what is the difference between using good as a title and using it as a description of a persons actions?
Here is the answer: A person can DO good, but they cannot BE good. Only God can be good just as God is Love. We can Love, but we cannot BE love.
Now you are starting to get it brother or sister, Yes I do consider as such even though you probably collectively are a cult. Alot of people have nutty beliefs. I knew this one fella that HE AND ONLY ONE OTHER PERSON WERE SAVED AND HE SAID HE WAS NOT SURE ABOUT THE OTHER GUY EITHER. Ha ha
Now your starting to get it Peg. christ is only GOOD and he can be GOOD, he cannot just do good. This is why I keep asking you to give me an area where he is not good
Whatever things the father does, the son does in like manner. Jesus reflected Gods qualities which means he imitated Gods goodness...he didnt create it, therefore he cannot be God.
God does not create anything, that is an anthropomorphic concept. Its a word to help our limited minds understand Gods "actions" God is everything, always and forever at the same time forever. By Christ or God all things consist, even love and goodness
Im not ignoring your passages, I simply trying to get you to see that iin his humilty state or servant state he would be in some degree subserviant to the God his heavenly father as a HUMAN son. but these tiles dont exists prior to the incarnation, there is and was just God.
before we go any further down this 'sinful angels' argument, could you please provide some scriptural proof that the angels who reside with God in heaven are also sinners. I really need to see that from the bible because i just do not believe a word of it.
One does not need a specific passage stating that angels sin, since when we have an example of one of the greatest ones ever created sinning against God. Conclusion angels have the passibility of exercising freewill to disobey God
Further, if there are none righteouss no not one, then this would include any created being, since Christs authority and influence is both in heaven and earth
If only God is good, it would follow that no one or anything else is, while they and we can do good things from a created being standpoint, we are not GOOD OVERALL. The conclusion is therefore irresistible, angels make mistakes with best of us
Also you would need to explain how a sinning Angel could be called holy as they are in Deuteronomy 33:2 and Jude 14. Also, how could they uphold and reflect Gods holiness if they are sinful? They couldnt do that because to sin means to fall from Gods perfect standards. IOW, if they sin, they can no longer by holy.
If everybody that sinned was out of gods graces then none of us would be here now, including the angels
there was no time in history that Gods creation was not under his mercy.
The gentiles before christ, went by the law of the heart . Romans 2:14-16
The children of Israel beofre Christ, were under the Law. At Atonement or Onement, Christ rolled forward thier sins until the fulness of time When christ appeared.
Since Satan is an example of Gods mercy and justice, (for a time even now) the angels no doubt have a plan in place that warrents Gods mercy due to mistakes as a result of freewill,
My guess is that this plan is none other than Christ himself.
THE ANGELS REFLECT HOLINESS ONLY BECAUSE GOD IS HOLY AND SANCTIFIES THEM THROUGH HIS WORD, ACTIONS AND GRACE, NOT DUE TO THIER ACTIONS OR OURS
John 5:19 Therefore, in answer, Jesus went on to say to them: Most truly I say to YOU, The Son cannot do a single thing of his own initiative, but only what he beholds the Father doing. For whatever things that One does, these things the Son also does in like manner.
Peg take a close look at this verse and see if doesnt cry out one God
EAM
Edited by EMA, : No reason given.
Edited by EMA, : No reason given.
Edited by EMA, : No reason given.
Edited by EMA, : No reason given.
Edited by EMA, : No reason given.
Edited by EMA, : No reason given.

This message is a reply to:
 Message 122 by Peg, posted 03-05-2010 3:22 PM Peg has replied

Replies to this message:
 Message 127 by Peg, posted 03-06-2010 12:16 AM Dawn Bertot has replied

  
hERICtic
Member (Idle past 4539 days)
Posts: 371
Joined: 08-18-2009


Message 124 of 492 (549313)
03-05-2010 6:39 PM
Reply to: Message 117 by Dawn Bertot
03-04-2010 11:09 PM


Re: Jesus still not god
Hello again.
Eric previously writes:
Phil 2 does not claim Jesus was equal to god.
EMA writes:
sorry H, yes it does. Even the simplest of readings would make it very clear of its meaning. Its just like the following two verses
Thats the problem. Everything is not simple. You have to undestand the authors mindset, you have to factor in context, translational differences, the fact that many verses have been tampered with, etc. Phil 2 is a great example of how one could see it one way, yet another read it differently. Hopefully this will help. Its pretty complex.
Philippians 2:6-11 Jesus in the form morphe of God
EMA writes:
1 John 5
20And we know that the Son of God is come, and hath given us an understanding, that we may know him that is true, and we are in him that is true, even in his Son Jesus Christ. This is the true God, and eternal life.
This is a great example of ignoring the context. It states "we are in HIM", which refers to god. It then states "we" are in his son, Jesus Christ. So two seperate "beings" are refered to. How do you know, "true God" refers back to Jesus but not god? Before the last sentence, the word "true" is used twice, both times refering back to god. Why would the "true God" then refer to Jesus and not god himself?
2 Chronicles 15:3; Jeremiah 10:10; John 17:3 and 1 Thessalonians 1:9.
All four places use "true God", all four refers to the Father.
EMA writes:
1 Timothy 3:14 These things I write to you, though I hope to come to you shortly; 15 but if I am delayed, I write so that you may know how you ought to conduct yourself in the house of God, which is the church of the living God, the pillar and ground of the truth. 16 And without controversy great is the mystery of godliness:
God[c] was manifested in the flesh,
Justified in the Spirit,
Seen by angels,
Preached among the Gentiles,
Believed on in the world,
Received up in glory.
From what I have read, the earliest manuscripts do NOT have "god", they have "he" refering to Jesus.
An Historical Account of Two Notable Corruptions of Scripture - Wikipedia
These translations do NOT have "god".
"He appeared in a body" (NIV)
"He who was manifested in the flesh" (ASV)
"He who was revealed in the flesh" (NASB)
"He was manifested in the flesh" (RSV)
"Which was manifested in the flesh" (Douey-Rheims)
"Who was manifested in the flesh" (NAB)"
Edited by hERICtic, : No reason given.

This message is a reply to:
 Message 117 by Dawn Bertot, posted 03-04-2010 11:09 PM Dawn Bertot has replied

Replies to this message:
 Message 125 by Dawn Bertot, posted 03-05-2010 7:09 PM hERICtic has replied

  
Dawn Bertot
Member (Idle past 105 days)
Posts: 3571
Joined: 11-23-2007


Message 125 of 492 (549319)
03-05-2010 7:09 PM
Reply to: Message 124 by hERICtic
03-05-2010 6:39 PM


Re: Jesus still not god
eric writes:
Thats the problem. Everything is not simple. You have to undestand the authors mindset, you have to factor in context, translational differences, the fact that many verses have been tampered with, etc. Phil 2 is a great example of how one could see it one way, yet another read it differently. Hopefully this will help. Its pretty complex
wrong, it is simple until people start rearranging and adding words to fit a theology
I read your article and right off the bat the author quotes the verses from trqanslations with additions to change the whole meaning.
No reptuatble or reliable translation translates it "Grasped At", this changes the whole meaning of the passage, for the most part.
the rest of the article is built on that misrepresentation
here is one from the New Living Translation
3 Don’t be selfish; don’t try to impress others. Be humble, thinking of others as better than yourselves. 4 Don’t look out only for your own interests, but take an interest in others, too.
5 You must have the same attitude that Christ Jesus had.
6 Though he was God,[a]
he did not think of equality with God
as something to cling to.
7 Instead, he gave up his divine privileges[b];
he took the humble position of a slave[c]
and was born as a human being.
When he appeared in human form,[d]
8 he humbled himself in obedience to God
and died a criminal’s death on a cross.
It seems nearly no one agrees with your fumbling with the original
EAM
Edited by EMA, : No reason given.

This message is a reply to:
 Message 124 by hERICtic, posted 03-05-2010 6:39 PM hERICtic has replied

Replies to this message:
 Message 126 by hERICtic, posted 03-05-2010 8:15 PM Dawn Bertot has replied

  
hERICtic
Member (Idle past 4539 days)
Posts: 371
Joined: 08-18-2009


Message 126 of 492 (549325)
03-05-2010 8:15 PM
Reply to: Message 125 by Dawn Bertot
03-05-2010 7:09 PM


Re: Jesus still not god
You used 1 Timothy to show Jesus is god. Using your translation, it most certainly does. Let me ask you this. Why didnt the church recognize this scripture until AFTER the fourth century? If really stated "god" as plainly as you gave it, it should have jumped right out for the trinitarians. But its NEVER mentioned.
Do you think perhaps it was altered after the fourth century to make it appear that way?
You skipped over 1 John 5. Let me ask you this, "one true god" could it refer to Jesus? Could it also refer to god the way its read?
Yes or no?
You seem to be quite upset at your belief that the translators "changed" the meaning of Phil. 2. Yet you are very quiet when I point out other mistranslations which destroy your notion of Jesus being god.
Why in heaven does Jesus still call the Father god? Why does Jesus NEVER say he is god? Jesus stated over and over the Father IS god. Why does he never call himself Father, only the son?
Phil 2 is the most troublesome. I admit this. It appears everything hinges upon "form". Lets look at how Paul used similiar words to describe Jesus.
2 Cor 4:4-6 The god of this age has blinded the minds of unbelievers, so that they cannot see the light of the gospel of the glory of Christ, who is the image of God. 5For we do not preach ourselves, but Jesus Christ as Lord, and ourselves as your servants for Jesus' sake. 6For God, who said, "Let light shine out of darkness,"[a]made his light shine in our hearts to give us the light of the knowledge of the glory of God in the face of Christ.
Hmmm....not god, bu the image of god.
Colossians 1:15 He is the image of the invisible God, the firstborn over all creation.
Again, Paul does not say Jesus is god, but the image of god.
Hebrews 1:2-4 In the past God spoke to our forefathers through the prophets at many times and in various ways, 2but in these last days he has spoken to us by his Son, whom he appointed heir of all things, and through whom he made the universe. 3The Son is the radiance of God's glory and the exact representation of his being, sustaining all things by his powerful word. After he had provided purification for sins, he sat down at the right hand of the Majesty in heaven. 4So he became as much superior to the angels as the name he has inherited is superior to theirs.
A representation of his being.
Ema, each one of these verses clearly lays out what Paul thought of Jesus. He is not god.
Edited by hERICtic, : No reason given.

This message is a reply to:
 Message 125 by Dawn Bertot, posted 03-05-2010 7:09 PM Dawn Bertot has replied

Replies to this message:
 Message 130 by Dawn Bertot, posted 03-06-2010 1:17 PM hERICtic has replied

  
Peg
Member (Idle past 4952 days)
Posts: 2703
From: melbourne, australia
Joined: 11-22-2008


Message 127 of 492 (549348)
03-06-2010 12:16 AM
Reply to: Message 123 by Dawn Bertot
03-05-2010 4:15 PM


EMA writes:
Let me try this once again, the scriptures say there are good people correct? It also says there "ARE NONE THAT ARE GOOD, NO NOT ONE". Now how to do we make these scriptures not contadict eachother.
the problem is that you are apply the same context to both
You see the contradiction, but you dont realise that in one, Jesus was being address with the title of Good, whereas in the others, people are being spoken of as behaving in a good way.
Its really that simple.
As this has gone on now for 3 pages, it would be good to end it here. The answer to 'God is good therefore because Jesus is good he must be God' is wrong for the reason stated above about the context.
Jesus did not like reciving the title of Good....something that he beleived only God should be titled with.
EMA writes:
I simply trying to get you to see that iin his humilty state or servant state he would be in some degree subserviant to the God his heavenly father as a HUMAN son. but these tiles dont exists prior to the incarnation, there is and was just God.
prior to his incarnation, he was the Angel who led isreal out of the wilderness, the Angel who spoke on Gods behalf... he didnt need such titles. He recieved these titles because of his new role as the Messiah.
EMA writes:
One does not need a specific passage stating that angels sin, since when we have an example of one of the greatest ones ever created sinning against God. Conclusion angels have the passibility of exercising freewill to disobey God
Ok, so you dont have any scriptural evidence that the angels who still dwell in heaven actually sin. Glad we cleared that up because i was starting to think that i had missed something.
I do agree with you though that the angels who exist in heaven have the possiblity of sinning. All creature that have free will can sin, absolutely. But i think we can be pretty sure that if any angel did/does sin, they are removed from the service of God and thrown into what the bible calls 'Tartarus'
a deep spiritual void from where they will be thrown into the abyss and live no more. 2Peter 2:4 God did not hold back from punishing the angels that sinned, but, by throwing them into Tar′ta‧rus, delivered them to pits of dense darkness to be reserved for judgment
EMA writes:
If everybody that sinned was out of gods graces then none of us would be here now, including the angels
there was no time in history that Gods creation was not under his mercy.
Adam and Eve certainly were not under his mercy. They were dealt the full force of the law without any chance of forgiveness. This is becaues they were willful sinners, unlike us who were born into this condition. His mercy has been upon every human born from Adam and Eve.
And while the angels were not killed instantly, they were punished instantly by being thrown into Tartarus. This is a place of deep spiritual darkness...a place they can never come back from. They will also soon be killed.

This message is a reply to:
 Message 123 by Dawn Bertot, posted 03-05-2010 4:15 PM Dawn Bertot has replied

Replies to this message:
 Message 129 by Dawn Bertot, posted 03-06-2010 12:52 PM Peg has not replied
 Message 131 by Dawn Bertot, posted 03-06-2010 1:26 PM Peg has replied

  
Adminnemooseus
Administrator
Posts: 3974
Joined: 09-26-2002


Message 128 of 492 (549350)
03-06-2010 2:45 AM


Test - Maybe temp closure because of technical problems
Prior to this message, this topic has 127 messages.
On the "All Topic" index page, however, it shows 151 messages, and the message 151 link goes to the Straightforward, hard-to-answer-questions about the Bible/Christianity topic.
That topic also lists 151 messages in the "All Topic" index page, with the message 151 link going to the proper place.
We shall see what happens when I post this message.
Adminnemooseus

  
Dawn Bertot
Member (Idle past 105 days)
Posts: 3571
Joined: 11-23-2007


Message 129 of 492 (549370)
03-06-2010 12:52 PM
Reply to: Message 127 by Peg
03-06-2010 12:16 AM


test one two three

This message is a reply to:
 Message 127 by Peg, posted 03-06-2010 12:16 AM Peg has not replied

  
Dawn Bertot
Member (Idle past 105 days)
Posts: 3571
Joined: 11-23-2007


Message 130 of 492 (549373)
03-06-2010 1:17 PM
Reply to: Message 126 by hERICtic
03-05-2010 8:15 PM


scriptures have priorities
You used 1 Timothy to show Jesus is god. Using your translation, it most certainly does. Let me ask you this. Why didnt the church recognize this scripture until AFTER the fourth century? If really stated "god" as plainly as you gave it, it should have jumped right out for the trinitarians. But its NEVER mentioned.
You seem to be under the mistaken conclusion that this is the only passage in scripture that equates God with Christ. If the verse says He or God, it is corroborated by Phil 2. Oh yeah thats right your still using that translation that is unrelieable and untrustworth,, changing and adding words to change whole ideas.
Shame on you and those dishonest people.
You skipped over 1 John 5. Let me ask you this, "one true god" could it refer to Jesus? Could it also refer to god the way its read?
Yes or no?
Why would I skip a verse that corroborates my position. It refers to both because both are one and the same. IOW it can refer to either in the verse, but mostly it refers to Christ, that is the context
You seem to be quite upset at your belief that the translators "changed" the meaning of Phil. 2. Yet you are very quiet when I point out other mistranslations which destroy your notion of Jesus being god.
Thank you for agreeing that yours is clearly a faulty translation (grasped at) that changes the whole context and meaning. However, if we have a superior passage to I timothy and 1 John that makes it clear that Jesus is equal with God, the the usage of God in those areas is justified, it does not change anything.
Why in heaven does Jesus still call the Father god? Why does Jesus NEVER say he is god? Jesus stated over and over the Father IS god. Why does he never call himself Father, only the son?Phil 2 is the most troublesome.
Ill bet.
I admit this. It appears everything hinges upon "form". Lets look at how Paul used similiar words to describe Jesus.
No everything hinges on the word equal
2 Cor 4:4-6 The god of this age has blinded the minds of unbelievers, so that they cannot see the light of the gospel of the glory of Christ, who is the image of God. 5For we do not preach ourselves, but Jesus Christ as Lord, and ourselves as your servants for Jesus' sake. 6For God, who said, "Let light shine out of darkness,"[a]made his light shine in our hearts to give us the light of the knowledge of the glory of God in the face of Christ.
You still have not learned that one verse trumps another. Phil is a commentary on this verse. He is the image from a human sons standpoint. If we read further, in Phil and other verses we see his not only the image as a son, but is actually God
Ema, each one of these verses clearly lays out what Paul thought of Jesus. He is not god.
You simply have not read with honesty all of what Paul had to say on the subject. read on friend read on
EAM
Edited by EMA, : No reason given.
Edited by EMA, : No reason given.
Edited by EMA, : No reason given.
Edited by EMA, : No reason given.
Edited by EMA, : No reason given.

This message is a reply to:
 Message 126 by hERICtic, posted 03-05-2010 8:15 PM hERICtic has replied

Replies to this message:
 Message 133 by hERICtic, posted 03-06-2010 7:45 PM Dawn Bertot has replied

  
Dawn Bertot
Member (Idle past 105 days)
Posts: 3571
Joined: 11-23-2007


Message 131 of 492 (549376)
03-06-2010 1:26 PM
Reply to: Message 127 by Peg
03-06-2010 12:16 AM


the problem is that you are apply the same context to both
You see the contradiction, but you dont realise that in one, Jesus was being address with the title of Good, whereas in the others, people are being spoken of as behaving in a good way.
Its really that simple.
The only thing I SEE is you avoiding an inevitable conclusion that throws you position in disarray.
Jesus cannot be completely good and not good in some respect. I have now asked you to provide a circumstance where andhow he would not be good in any respect, you refuse to provide it because you know he is good in every respect. Only God is good, those are jesus' own words.
Your title scenerio is a sidetrack to the main issue. Even if it were a point, the other conclusions would still follow. It does not matter that you refuse address the specific argument, but you will think about it in your mind and probably be honest with yourslelf at some point.
As this has gone on now for 3 pages, it would be good to end it here. The answer to 'God is good therefore because Jesus is good he must be God' is wrong for the reason stated above about the context.
sorry Peg wont work. It is ture or false that ONLY God is good, that leaves everbody else out of that category, even angels. Since there is no respect that Christ is not, not good, Christ has to be God. No where is it stated that angels are sinless, as a matter of fact we have a case where legions of them did and do sin. the clearest indication is that they too sin, but not to the degree that Satan and his followers did. Uf you could present a passage that suggest that angels are sinless like that of Christ, your case would be made
There are no reasons stated above that will deal with the force and logic of this conclusion, and you know it, but have no valid sollution to it.
Even if he were objecting to titles,he made an emphatic statement of truth that is corroborated by the Apostle in his statement, that there are none that are good, no not one,except God and Christ ofcourse
Your sidetrack about titles will not help you out of this very obvious problem
As this has gone on now for 3 pages, it would be good to end it here. The answer to 'God is good therefore because Jesus is good he must be God' is wrong for the reason stated above about the context
And finally your CASUAL use of the word GOOD applied to Christ IN THE ABOVE STATEMENT,does not fully appreciate what is said of him AS GOOD, in other passages. It is clear from these others that he is sinless and perfect the same way God is described. Ill let you figure out the conclusion. This I bet is a good place to end that topic, as Ihave carried it toits logical conclusion, aspertains to scripture
Ok, so you dont have any scriptural evidence that the angels who still dwell in heaven actually sin. Glad we cleared that up because i was starting to think that i had missed something.
I do agree with you though that the angels who exist in heaven have the possiblity of sinning. All creature that have free will can sin, absolutely. But i think we can be pretty sure that if any angel did/does sin, they are removed from the service of God and thrown into what the bible calls 'Tartarus'
But I do. I haveJesus' own words and statement that ONLY GOD IS GOOD, that would leave out any creatd being.
I have the Apostles words that there are none that are Good, no not one, except God and Christ ofcourse, this would include any created being.
So if only God is good to the ultimate definition of Good and all others are not, AS PAUL STATES, WHO DOES THAT LEAVE PEG? Im thinkingChrist, who did no sin, neither was guile found in his mouth. Ill let you figure out that inevitable conclusion
I have the scriptures that state that Satan sinned against God in such a way that could only be described as gradual, repetive misbehavior. His plotting and planning, jealousy and pride did not happen over night, conclusion God extended him mercy probably for longer than you and I could imagine
Is it your contention to say that Satan one day was completely faithful and in love with God, then the next day or that same evening suddenlymdecided he wanted sit n Gods place. His pride was liftd up. God's explanation in scripture makes it clear that it was a process. It is more reasonable to assume that God operates in the same manner in the area of Mercy in one place as he does in others. I think the example of Satan is a good scriptural indicator as to the nature of sin inregards to angels and how his mercy is extended to
Adam and Eve certainly were not under his mercy. They were dealt the full force of the law without any chance of forgiveness. This is becaues they were willful sinners, unlike us who were born into this condition. His mercy has been upon every human born from Adam and Eve.
Peg I dont know what you believe mercy is but Adam and Eve were certainly under Gods mercy. Of course they were punished but they were not thrown in to the lake of fire or made to die completely. The wages of sin are death (Romans 6:23) and they died physically and spiritually, BUT THEY WERE SPARED TH SECOND DEATH BECAUSE OF THE SECOND ADAM. If that not mercy then what is it
Secondly Christs blood was retroactive to wipe out thier sins.
But i think we can be pretty sure that if any angel did/does sin, they are removed from the service of God and thrown into what the bible calls 'Tartarus'
After all the information and scripture I have presented concerning this topic the best you can say is I THINK and WE CAN BE PRETTY BE PRETTY SURE, THAT THEY ARE REMOVED FROM THE SERVICE OF GOD, ETC.
Would you care to formulate those phrases of assertion into an argument based on scripture. I like to see why YOU THINK and WE CAN BE PRETTY SURE
EAM
Edited by EMA, : No reason given.
Edited by EMA, : No reason given.

This message is a reply to:
 Message 127 by Peg, posted 03-06-2010 12:16 AM Peg has replied

Replies to this message:
 Message 132 by Peg, posted 03-06-2010 6:31 PM Dawn Bertot has replied

  
Peg
Member (Idle past 4952 days)
Posts: 2703
From: melbourne, australia
Joined: 11-22-2008


Message 132 of 492 (549396)
03-06-2010 6:31 PM
Reply to: Message 131 by Dawn Bertot
03-06-2010 1:26 PM


EMA writes:
Jesus cannot be completely good and not good in some respect. I have now asked you to provide a circumstance where andhow he would not be good in any respect, you refuse to provide it because you know he is good in every respect.
of course he was good in every respect, he was perfect Hebrews 9:14. And i provided you the scriptural reason for his goodness
John 5:19 "Therefore, in answer, Jesus went on to say to them: Most truly I say to YOU, The Son cannot do a single thing of his own initiative, but only what he beholds the Father doing. For whatever things that One does, these things the Son also does in like manner."
Hebrews 1:3 "He is the reflection of [his] glory and the exact representation of his very being"
Lets be honest here, Jesus 'reflected' the glory of God including Gods goodness. But Jesus was not the source of that goodness... he simply reflected it by imitating his father. He saw the fathers goodness and he imitated it.
EMA writes:
This I bet is a good place to end that topic, as Ihave carried it toits logical conclusion, aspertains to scripture
you didnt use many scriptures to prove your point on this topic. You didnt explain why Jesus objected to being called good in the instance of the young ruler who addressed him as such.
EMA writes:
But I do. I haveJesus' own words and statement that ONLY GOD IS GOOD, that would leave out any creatd being.
Yet the scriptures list many other people who are called good. So other created beings are called good by God.
EMA writes:
I have the scriptures that state that Satan sinned against God in such a way that could only be described as gradual, repetive misbehavior.
show me the scriptures that show that Satan sinned before he mislead Adam and Eve.
EMA writes:
I think the example of Satan is a good scriptural indicator as to the nature of sin inregards to angels and how his mercy is extended
Ok, so show me scriptures which state that God forgives sinning Angels and how they sin. There is plenty of discussion in the bible as to how humans sin...also how Satan and his demons sin. Show me from scirpture where God has forgiven sinning angels.
EMA writes:
Peg I dont know what you believe mercy is but Adam and Eve were certainly under Gods mercy. Of course they were punished but they were not thrown in to the lake of fire or made to die completely. The wages of sin are death (Romans 6:23) and they died physically and spiritually, BUT THEY WERE SPARED TH SECOND DEATH BECAUSE OF THE SECOND ADAM. If that not mercy then what is it
So, we who are born into sin, without a choice, get thrown into the lake of fire, but Adam and Eve who were created perfect and without sin, became willful sinners were spared such a punishment. Hmmmm makes a lot of sense lol. Are they in heaven then? Were they rewarded for their bad behavior? Please show me scriptural evidence for your assertion.
EMA writes:
Secondly Christs blood was retroactive to wipe out thier sins.
can you show me scriptual evidence that God forgave Adam and Eve their sins based on christs sacrifice?
EMA writes:
After all the information and scripture I have presented concerning this topic the best you can say is I THINK and WE CAN BE PRETTY BE PRETTY SURE, THAT THEY ARE REMOVED FROM THE SERVICE OF GOD, ETC.
Would you care to formulate those phrases of assertion into an argument based on scripture. I like to see why YOU THINK and WE CAN BE PRETTY SURE
Absolutely.
2Peter 2:4 "Certainly if God did not hold back from punishing the angels that sinned, but, by throwing them into Tar′ta‧rus, delivered them to pits of dense darkness to be reserved for judgment"
Jude 6 "And the angels that did not keep their original position but forsook their own proper dwelling place he has reserved with eternal bonds under dense darkness for the judgment of the great day"
1 Peter 3:19"In this [state] also he (Jesus) went his way and preached to the spirits in prison, 20who had once been disobedient when the patience of God was waiting in Noah’s days"
Luke 8:30-31 "Jesus asked him: What is your name? He said: Legion, because many demons had entered into him. 31And they kept entreating him not to order them to go away into the abyss"
Revelation 20:1 "And I saw an angel coming down out of heaven with the key of the abyss and a great chain in his hand. 2And he seized the dragon, the original serpent, who is the Devil and Satan, and bound him for a thousand years. 3And he hurled him into the abyss and shut [it] and sealed [it] over him, that he might not mislead the nations anymore
Matthew 25:41 Then he will say, in turn, to those on his left, ‘Be on YOUR way from me, YOU who have been cursed, into the everlasting fire prepared for the Devil and his angels"
Revelation 20:10 "And the Devil who was misleading them was hurled into the lake of fire and sulphur...14And death and Ha′des were hurled into the lake of fire. This means the second death, the lake of fire"
I think we can be pretty confident that the scriptural evidence is that the sinning angels including Satan have been judged, tried and convicted without mercy and forgivness. They are seen to be in a spiritual prison since the days of Noah when they 'forsook their proper dwelling place', and soon will be thrown into the abyss... a place to which they fear. They will also experience the '2nd death' which is complete and utter destruction in the symbolic lake of fire.
All scriptual as you can see.

This message is a reply to:
 Message 131 by Dawn Bertot, posted 03-06-2010 1:26 PM Dawn Bertot has replied

Replies to this message:
 Message 135 by Dawn Bertot, posted 03-07-2010 9:31 AM Peg has not replied
 Message 138 by Dawn Bertot, posted 03-07-2010 12:48 PM Peg has replied

  
hERICtic
Member (Idle past 4539 days)
Posts: 371
Joined: 08-18-2009


Message 133 of 492 (549402)
03-06-2010 7:45 PM
Reply to: Message 130 by Dawn Bertot
03-06-2010 1:17 PM


Re: scriptures have priorities
Eric previously writes:
You used 1 Timothy to show Jesus is god. Using your translation, it most certainly does. Let me ask you this. Why didnt the church recognize this scripture until AFTER the fourth century? If really stated "god" as plainly as you gave it, it should have jumped right out for the trinitarians. But its NEVER mentioned.
EMA writes:
You seem to be under the mistaken conclusion that this is the only passage in scripture that equates God with Christ. If the verse says He or God, it is corroborated by Phil 2. Oh yeah thats right your still using that translation that is unrelieable and untrustworth,, changing and adding words to change whole ideas.
Wow. You just completely ignored the entire context. The way it is written (as per your translators) SCREAMS Jesus is god. Using your translation, its obvious Jesus is god, why wasnt it shown BEFORE the fourth century?
Obvious answer: "God" is not written there. "He" is.
If "he" refers back to Jesus, it changes the meaning completely.
Eric previously writes:
You skipped over 1 John 5. Let me ask you this, "one true god" could it refer to Jesus? Could it also refer to god the way its read?
Yes or no?
EMA writes:
Why would I skip a verse that corroborates my position. It refers to both because both are one and the same. IOW it can refer to either in the verse, but mostly it refers to Christ, that is the context
It does not corroborate your posistion. Sheesh. Your entire argument rests upon the last sentence. Lets remove the last sentence.
18We know that anyone born of God does not continue to sin; the one who was born of God keeps him safe, and the evil one cannot harm him. 19We know that we are children of God, and that the whole world is under the control of the evil one. 20We know also that the Son of God has come and has given us understanding, so that we may know him who is true. And we are in him who is trueeven in his Son Jesus Christ.
There is NOTHING in this entire scripture that states Jesus is god. NOTHING. So everything rests upon: He is the true God and eternal life.
So if that last sentence refers back to god, you have a case. If it refers back to Jesus, then it does not show Jesus is god. Its as simple as that.
Using just that scripture alone, its difficult to tell who is being refered to. But as I pointed out, "one true god" in the four instances its used, refers to god, the father.
EMA writes:
Thank you for agreeing that yours is clearly a faulty translation (grasped at) that changes the whole context and meaning. However, if we have a superior passage to I timothy and 1 John that makes it clear that Jesus is equal with God, the the usage of God in those areas is justified, it does not changeanything.
I did not agree with you. I simply pointed out that you base everything upon "translations". You dismiss anything which does not back up your point. You cannot provide ANY evidence "true god" refers back to Jesus. Nothing. Yet using other verses, I have shown "true god' each time refers back to god.
Eric previously writes:
Why in heaven does Jesus still call the Father god? Why does Jesus NEVER say he is god? Jesus stated over and over the Father IS god. Why does he never call himself Father, only the son?Phil 2 is the most troublesome.
EMA writes:
Ill bet.
Wow. You've ignored my questions again.
Eric previously writes:
I admit this. It appears everything hinges upon "form". Lets look at how Paul used similiar words to describe Jesus.
EMA writes:
No everything hinges on the word equal
No it does not. It states NOT equal. So when Paul states four times Jesus is basically just in the image of god...these verses do not count bc you hinge upon one verse which states "form". Which has the same meaning. So we ignore the other four?
If Jesus was not god, what does this mean to you? Could Jesus still be the messiah?
So you have no problem that Jesus, who is god, runs away from people? Craps? Prays to god that he will not be killed? Screams out to god to save him? Adding all this up, you believe Jesus was god?
Even when the OT states god is not a man?
Edited by hERICtic, : Incorrectly attributed quote to myself

This message is a reply to:
 Message 130 by Dawn Bertot, posted 03-06-2010 1:17 PM Dawn Bertot has replied

Replies to this message:
 Message 134 by AdminPD, posted 03-07-2010 5:11 AM hERICtic has not replied
 Message 146 by Dawn Bertot, posted 03-08-2010 10:29 AM hERICtic has replied

  
AdminPD
Inactive Administrator


Message 134 of 492 (549417)
03-07-2010 5:11 AM
Reply to: Message 133 by hERICtic
03-06-2010 7:45 PM


Accurate Quoting
hERICtic,
Please double check your quotes to make sure they are accurate. Inaccurate quotes make it difficult to follow the discussion.
In your first quote you have attributed the first paragraph to EMA, when it is actually something you wrote in Message 126. Please edit and correct the mistake.
Thanks
AdminPD

Usually, in a well-conducted debate, speakers are either emotionally uncommitted or can preserve sufficient detachment to maintain a coolly academic approach.-- Encylopedia Brittanica, on debate

This message is a reply to:
 Message 133 by hERICtic, posted 03-06-2010 7:45 PM hERICtic has not replied

  
Dawn Bertot
Member (Idle past 105 days)
Posts: 3571
Joined: 11-23-2007


Message 135 of 492 (549426)
03-07-2010 9:31 AM
Reply to: Message 132 by Peg
03-06-2010 6:31 PM


Peg and eric I will try and get my responses to you out as quickly as I can today, I do not always have as much as I wish to respond as quickly as I wish. Thanks EMA
OFF TOPIC - Please Do Not Respond to this message by continuing in this vein.
AdminPD
Edited by AdminPD, : Warning

This message is a reply to:
 Message 132 by Peg, posted 03-06-2010 6:31 PM Peg has not replied

Replies to this message:
 Message 136 by hERICtic, posted 03-07-2010 12:09 PM Dawn Bertot has not replied
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