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Author Topic:   Is Jesus God?
Peg
Member (Idle past 4951 days)
Posts: 2703
From: melbourne, australia
Joined: 11-22-2008


Message 301 of 492 (554032)
04-06-2010 2:39 AM
Reply to: Message 298 by kbertsche
04-05-2010 8:06 PM


Re: Granville Sharp
kbertsche writes:
That's nice, but irrelevant. This does not meet the requirements of the rule as laid down by Granville Sharp. For these requirements, see Re: Granville Sharp (Message 287).
quote:Acts 13:50 is a good example of how it doesnt work because there is no way to mistake the women and the men of the city as being the same person.
Acts 13:50 is a good example of a verse which does not meet the requirements of the rule as laid down by Granville Sharp.
the Granville Sharp rule asserts that, since the article (the) is not repeated before the second noun (Savior), the two nouns refer to the same person or subject. This would mean that great God and Savior would both be descriptive of Jesus, as if the meaning were ‘of Jesus Christ, the great God and our Savior.’
so why don't all translators apply this rule to the verse in titus we are discussing? you havnt answered that yet.
And im confused as to what you mean by 'that doesnt meet the requirements of the GS rule'
in what way do the scriptures i gave, not meet his requirements??? The construction is the same...so what do you mean?
Edited by Peg, : No reason given.

This message is a reply to:
 Message 298 by kbertsche, posted 04-05-2010 8:06 PM kbertsche has replied

Replies to this message:
 Message 310 by kbertsche, posted 04-06-2010 11:09 AM Peg has replied

  
Peg
Member (Idle past 4951 days)
Posts: 2703
From: melbourne, australia
Joined: 11-22-2008


Message 302 of 492 (554034)
04-06-2010 3:14 AM
Reply to: Message 300 by Dawn Bertot
04-06-2010 1:37 AM


Re: Jesus WAS God in earliest NT teaching
EMA writes:
So the reason I KNOW he means Alpha and Omega, is because Jesus said, "before Abraham was I AM". this tells me that he is the Alpha and the Omega.
that verse that you are using is not translated as 'I AM' by all translators for good reason. We have discussed that verse earlier in this thread.
translations of John 8:58 writes:
Moffatt: I have existed before Abraham was born.
Schonfield and An American Translation: I existed before Abraham was born.
Stage (German): Before Abraham came to be, I was.
Pfaefflin (German): Before there was an Abraham, I was already there!
George M. Lamsa, translating from the Syriac Peshitta: Before Abraham was born, I was.
Dr.James Murdock, translating from the Syriac Peshitto: Before Abraham existed, I was.
The Brazilian Sacred Bible published by the Catholic Bible Center of So Paulo says: Before Abraham existed, I was existing.
Also you have to remember that when Jesus spoke to those Jews, he spoke to them in Hebrew, not in Greek. So lets see how the Hebrew scholars who translated into Greek express the same verse
hebrew scholars on John 8:58 writes:
Dr.Franz Delitzsch: Before Abraham was, I have been.
Isaac Salkinson and David Ginsburg: I have been when there had as yet been no Abraham.
believe me, im not trying to be a smarty pants... my husband might not agree with on that point though hehe.
EMA writes:
If Last and first do not refer to Christ as God and IAM, when spoken by Christ, does not mean God, then what is he the IAM of? Is he the IAM of the real IAM
here is the clear and simple reason why the I AM of the OT is not the one mentioned by John...
In both of the above Hebrew translations, the expression I have been comes from 2 Hebrew words, both a pronoun and a verb - ani hayithi
on the other hand, the I AM of the OT uses only 1 Hebrew word: [/b]Ehye'h[/b]
Now John wrote the account in Greek, and in the Greek text the expression is Ego' eimi And the expression does mean I am. If you want to know in what sense John meant, he used the same word at John 8:24 & 28.
Now check out how the word is rendered in other versions
John 8:24, 28 writes:
NIV: 24 I told you that you would die in your sins; if you do not believe that I am the one I claim to be...28 So Jesus said, "When you have lifted up the Son of Man, then you will know that I am the one I claim to be
KJV 24 I said therefore unto you, that ye shall die in your sins: for if ye believe not that I am he...28Then said Jesus unto them, When ye have lifted up the Son of man, then shall ye know that I am he
ASV: 24 I said therefore unto you, that ye shall die in your sins: for except ye believe that I am he... 28 Jesus therefore said, When ye have lifted up the Son of man, then shall ye know that I am he
EMA writes:
Thats why in Revelations 2 you get the condensed statement about first and last, without repeating again, Alpha, Omega, b and E, the Almighty, still refering to the same person
So who is this refering to Peg
Jesus teaching was based on who the father was. So why do you assume that John is only speaking about Jesus in Revelation. Considering revelation is a vision about the fulfillment of all that God promises, why would John leave the God that Jesus preached about out of the picture?

This message is a reply to:
 Message 300 by Dawn Bertot, posted 04-06-2010 1:37 AM Dawn Bertot has replied

Replies to this message:
 Message 309 by Dawn Bertot, posted 04-06-2010 10:39 AM Peg has replied

  
Dawn Bertot
Member (Idle past 104 days)
Posts: 3571
Joined: 11-23-2007


Message 303 of 492 (554035)
04-06-2010 3:20 AM
Reply to: Message 296 by Peg
04-05-2010 7:42 PM


Re: Jesus WAS God in earliest NT teaching
Its for this reason that we need to know exactly what jesus role in the creation was. This is why Proverbs 8 is such an important passage for understanding that. Jesus was beside God as a master worker, God gave Jesus creative ability and this is why John says that all things came into existence thru him and by him...
but tell me this. If the one mentioned in Prov 8 is not Jesus (and its certainly not wisdom because wisdom is someone who can act and think and love) then who is it? Because if its not Jesus, then there is someone greater then Jesus who sat beside God as a master worker.
Peg a rule of argumentation is that you cannot assume what you are trying to prove. Proverbs 8 could be refering to wisdom in a metaphorical sense
it could be refering to satan at some point.
In other words it not like Daniel, where it is stated "there was one like the Son of Man"
When wisdom is spoken of in an anthropomorphic sense, it can act, think and love
Because if its not Jesus, then there is someone greater then Jesus who sat beside God as a master worker.
Peg nobody literally sits beside God, that is also anthropomopic
Because if its not Jesus, then there is someone greater then Jesus who sat beside God as a master worker.
if Proverbs 8 is about Christ then it contradics John 1:1
EAM
Edited by EMA, : No reason given.

This message is a reply to:
 Message 296 by Peg, posted 04-05-2010 7:42 PM Peg has replied

Replies to this message:
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jaywill
Member (Idle past 1962 days)
Posts: 4519
From: VA USA
Joined: 12-05-2005


Message 304 of 492 (554042)
04-06-2010 7:23 AM
Reply to: Message 274 by Peg
04-04-2010 8:54 AM


Re: Jesus WAS God in earliest NT teaching
Unfortunately for the trinity doctrine, Jesus was SENT to be the savior, He explained his role in Gods purpose perfectly:
This morning I do not have time to supply passages. But I will comment briefly.
It is true that Jesus is sent, or that the Son of God is sent. However, He does not seem to LEAVE the One who sent Him. The one who sent Him comes with Him.
So there is distinction. There is not separation.
John 6:38-40 I have come down from heaven to do, not my will, but the will of him that sent me. This is the will of him that sent me, that I should lose nothing out of all that he has given me but that I should resurrect it at the last day. For this is the will of my Father, that everyone that beholds the Son and exercises faith in him should have everlasting life, and I will resurrect him at the last day.
It is true that Christ came to do the will of His Father. But if you examine the chapter closely this divine life which is God Himself is on a kind of transmission from the Father through the Son into man.
So Jesus say as He lives because of the Father, so everyone who eats Him will live because of Him. I think that is John 6:57.
This matter of Father and Son and Spirit is therefore a branching out of God into man. It is a transmission from the source of the Father through the course of the Son by the transmission or flow of the Holy Spirit.
For God to dispense His life and His Spirit into man He is triune. And no one can deny that all three are called God in the Bible. The Father is called God. The Son is called God. And the Holy Spirit is called God.
He also explained that after his mission was accomplished, he would submit himself to God and relinquish his position as the king of the kingdom....this is so mankind can have an intimate relationship with God in the same way Adam and Eve did
It is true that 1 Cor. 15 does speak of the Son being subject to the Father after the millunnium. However, at what stage was the Son NOT subject to His Father?
We should not assume that His being subject to the Father at the end of the millennium is really a brand new development? Was the Son not subject to His Father throughout the 33 and a half years of His life? Was He not subject to the Father at baptism, in the wilderness, throughout His ministry, on Calvary, in resurrection ?
While I gladly acknowledge His being submitted to the Father at the close of the millennium that God may be all in all, it really is not an introduction of anything that has not already been.
Besides, being subject to the Father only causes the Father to exalt the Son more and more. Therefore in the closing scenes of eternity in Revelation 21 and 22, we see the SINGULAR "throne" of God and of the Lamb.
That is not two thrones of authority. That is one throne of God and of the Lamb. The truth is that God is IN the Lamb. This is proved because Revelation says that the Lamb is the LAMP and God is the LIGHT. This means that the Redeemer is indwelt with God the Father and God the Father lives in and shines out of God the Son.
Again, no one can deny that in the New Testament all three are called God - Father, Son, and Holy Spirit.
The truth is that Jesus Christ is the mingling of God and humanitty. He is God incorprated in a man. And the union of humanity and divinity is total, universal, and complete in Him.
All the fulness of the Godhead dwells in Him bodily. Paul did not say that one third of the fulness dwells in Him. Nor did Paul say 33.33333% of the fulness dwells in Christ.
Rather the Apostle Paul say all the fulness was pleased to dwell in Christ. So our God is the man Jesus.
1Corinthians 15:24 Next, the end, when he hands over the kingdom to his God and Father, when he has brought to nothing all government and all authority and power, and, when all things will have been subjected to him, then the Son himself will also subject himself to the One who subjected all things to him, that God may be all things to everyone.
Again, but point out when the Son was NOT subjected to God the Father. You cannot use this passage to deny that Jesus is God incarnate.
Jesus subjects himself to God, this proves beyond doubt that he is not equal, is not a part of, is not an incarnation of God...Rather he is a separate entity.
He is distinct. He is not separate.
Yes, he is the savior of mankind but NO he is not Jehovah.
Yes He is. And there is NO other Savior except Jehovah per the book of Isaiah.
Jehovah's Witnesses teach Polytheism.
Edited by jaywill, : No reason given.
Edited by jaywill, : No reason given.
Edited by jaywill, : No reason given.

This message is a reply to:
 Message 274 by Peg, posted 04-04-2010 8:54 AM Peg has replied

Replies to this message:
 Message 306 by Peg, posted 04-06-2010 8:01 AM jaywill has replied

  
Peg
Member (Idle past 4951 days)
Posts: 2703
From: melbourne, australia
Joined: 11-22-2008


Message 305 of 492 (554048)
04-06-2010 7:55 AM
Reply to: Message 303 by Dawn Bertot
04-06-2010 3:20 AM


Re: Jesus WAS God in earliest NT teaching
EMA writes:
Peg nobody literally sits beside God, that is also anthropomopic
thats not really what Luke says in Acts 2:32-35
This Jesus God resurrected ... he was exalted to the right hand of God ... Actually David did not ascend to the heavens, but he himself says, ‘Jehovah said to my Lord: Sit at my right hand, until I place your enemies as a stool for your feet.
Do you disagree that Jesus sits at Gods right hand?

This message is a reply to:
 Message 303 by Dawn Bertot, posted 04-06-2010 3:20 AM Dawn Bertot has not replied

  
Peg
Member (Idle past 4951 days)
Posts: 2703
From: melbourne, australia
Joined: 11-22-2008


Message 306 of 492 (554049)
04-06-2010 8:01 AM
Reply to: Message 304 by jaywill
04-06-2010 7:23 AM


Re: Jesus WAS God in earliest NT teaching
Jaywill writes:
Jehovah's Witnesses teach Polytheism.
can you explain how?
Because i only worship Jehovah. I dont worship Jesus, i dont pray to Jesus, i dont pray to mary or any of the saints... I recognize only one true God....last time i checked, that is monotheism.

This message is a reply to:
 Message 304 by jaywill, posted 04-06-2010 7:23 AM jaywill has replied

Replies to this message:
 Message 307 by jaywill, posted 04-06-2010 9:49 AM Peg has replied

  
jaywill
Member (Idle past 1962 days)
Posts: 4519
From: VA USA
Joined: 12-05-2005


Message 307 of 492 (554066)
04-06-2010 9:49 AM
Reply to: Message 306 by Peg
04-06-2010 8:01 AM


Re: Jesus WAS God in earliest NT teaching
can you explain how?
Your explanation of John 1:1 calls for two Gods.
And your explanation of God Almighty being Jehovah and the Mighty God being another inferior God.
This is polytheism.
Because i only worship Jehovah. I dont worship Jesus, i dont pray to Jesus, i dont pray to mary or any of the saints... I recognize only one true God....last time i checked, that is monotheism.
I also pray only to Jehovah. And I would not pray to any deceased or living saints.
But, calling on Jesus and praying to Jesus is calling on and praying to Jehovah God.
You teach polytheism in John 1:1 because the Word that was with God and was God is to your organization another God. You have two Gods in John 1:1.
If you accepted that the Logos is the God with also Whom He is WITH, then that would be monotheistic belief. As it stands you have to teach polytheism to deny the incarnation of Jehovah as the man Jesus Christ.
Edited by jaywill, : No reason given.

This message is a reply to:
 Message 306 by Peg, posted 04-06-2010 8:01 AM Peg has replied

Replies to this message:
 Message 314 by Peg, posted 04-06-2010 7:24 PM jaywill has replied

  
jaywill
Member (Idle past 1962 days)
Posts: 4519
From: VA USA
Joined: 12-05-2005


Message 308 of 492 (554068)
04-06-2010 9:59 AM


Whatever the interpretation of who wisdom is in Proverbs 8, it only says that Jehovah possessed this entity. It does not say that Jehovah created this entity.
"Jehovah possessed me in the beginning of His way, Before His works of old.
I was set up from eternity, From the beginning, before the earth was." (Prov. 8:22,23)
You cannot extrapolate from Proverbs 8 that Jehovah CREATED another God first, called Wisdom.
Then there is the question that, if God DID create Wisdom how did God have the Wisdom to do so before Wisdom was created ?
If Wisdom is an attribute of the eternal God then Wisdom was as long as God was.
Edited by jaywill, : No reason given.
Edited by jaywill, : No reason given.
Edited by jaywill, : No reason given.
Edited by jaywill, : No reason given.
Edited by jaywill, : No reason given.
Edited by jaywill, : No reason given.

Replies to this message:
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Dawn Bertot
Member (Idle past 104 days)
Posts: 3571
Joined: 11-23-2007


Message 309 of 492 (554073)
04-06-2010 10:39 AM
Reply to: Message 302 by Peg
04-06-2010 3:14 AM


Re: Jesus WAS God in earliest NT teaching
that verse that you are using is not translated as 'I AM' by all translators for good reason. We have discussed that verse earlier in this thread.
The mere fact that it is translated by Most as IAM, is indicative of the fact that the authors understood it to convey that meaning. this coupled with all the other facts in scripture concerning Jesus as God make it to clear that Jesus was indeed God
Here is short discussion on the usageof the two terms
Responses to Bismikaallahuma
I AM WHAT I AM [Part 2]
Sam Shamoun
This is the second part of our rebuttal to this article. If you have not done so yet, please read Part One first.
The authors continue:
Analysis of 'B' Mark
LXX (the last part of Exodus 3:14):
|ho oon = o wn| I AM
|apestalken = apestalken| hath sent me
|metros umas = me proV umaV| unto you.
compare this with John 8:58:
John 8:58:
|prin = prin| before
|Abraam = Abraam| Abraham
|genethai = genesQai| was (or 'came into being')
|egoo eimi = egw eimi| I AM.
Observation:
It is clear that the Greek word that has been used by LXX for "I AM" in "I AM hath sent me unto you" (Exodus 3:14) is 'ho oon' and not 'egoo eimi' as in John 8:58. So they are two different words and have two different meanings, and thus there is no connection between Exodus 3:14 and John 8:58.
RESPONSE:
As we have already conclusively demonstrated in Part One of our rebuttal, Exodus 3:14 refers to the Angel of Yahweh who is actually the preincarnate Christ. Therefore both Exodus 3:14 and John 8:58 have a direct bearing on the person and nature of Christ.
Furthermore, the authors are simply wrong by stating that the words ho on and ego eimi have different meanings, since the context shows that both phrases point to God’s timeless existence, as we shall shortly demonstrate.
TAM
'I Am What I Am' or 'I Am The Being'?
Exodus 3:14 (LXX) uses egw eimi o wn (egoo eimi ho oon) which means "I AM THE BEING", or, "I AM THE EXISTING ONE". The Greek word 'Oon' (wn) is translated several times in the New Testament as 'being', refer to:
Luke 3:23:
And Jesus himself, when he began to teach, was about thirty years of age, being (wn) the son.....
John 7:50:
Nicodemus saith unto them (he that came to him before, being (wn) one of them)
John 10:33:
...and because that thou, being (wn) a man, makest thyself God.
So egw eimi o wn (egoo eimi ho oon) should be translated as "I AM THE BEING" not "I Am what I AM". This attempt (evidence of divinity of Jesus Christ) cannot be sustained because the expression in Exodus 3:14 is different from the expression in John 8:58. This is another proof that throughout the Christian Greek scriptures God and Jesus are never identified as being the same person.
RESPONSE:
It never seems to have dawned on the authors that just because the two expressions are different doesn’t necessarily mean that they are different in meaning. As we shall shortly demonstrate, both expressions are basically synonymous in meaning since they point to the timeless existence of the Lord Jesus Christ. The authors themselves have noted that ego eimi ho on can be translated as "I AM THE EXISTING ONE."
The authors then make the following erroneous claim:
TAM
C) From the above conclusion we know that the expression at John 8:58 is quite different from the one used in Exodus 3:14. That is why the various translators of the New Testament had translated John 8:58 into many ways and had not stick to merely translating it to "I AM":
1869: "From before Abraham was, I have been." The New Testament, by G. R. Noyes.
1935: "I existed before Abraham was born!" The Bible-An American Translation, by J. M. P. Smith and E. J. Goodspeed.
1965: "Before Abraham was born, I was already the one that I am." Das Neue Testament, by Jrg Zink.
1981: "I was alive before Abraham was born!" The Simple English Bible.
1984: "Before Abraham came into existence, I have been." New World Translation of the Holy Scriptures.
1999: "The truth is, I existed before Abraham was even born!" New Living Translation by Tyndale House Publishers, Inc.
This is the same with translations from the ancient New Testament manuscripts:
Fourth/Fifth Century (Syriac-Edition): "Before Abraham was born, I have been." A Translation of the Four Gospels From thesyriac of the Sinaitic Palimpsest, by Agnes Smith Lewis, London, 1894.
Fifth Century (Curetonian Syriac-Edition): "Before ever Abraham come to be, I was." The Curetonian Version of the Four Gospels, by F. Crawford Burkitt, Vol. 1, Cambridge, England, 1904.
Fifth Century (Syriac Peshitta-Edition): "Before Abraham existed, I was." The Syriac New Testament Translated Into English From the Peshitto Version, by James Murdock seventh ed., Boston and London, 1896.
Fifth Century (Georgian-Edition): "Before ever Abraham come to be, I was." The Old Georgian Version of the Gospel of John, by Robert P. Blake and Maurice Briere, published in "Patrologia Orientalis," Vol. XXVI, fascicle 4, Paris, 1950.
Sixth Century (Ethiopic-Edition): "Before Abraham was born, I was." Novum Testamentum... Aethiopice (The New Testament in Ethiopic), by Thomas Pell Platt, revised by F. Praetorius, Leipzig, 1899.
Conclusion
The theory of divinity of Jesus through the word "I Am" has not been supported by convincing evidence, so it cannot stand to the scrutiny. Even many of the Gospels as well as the most ancient manuscripts did not use "I AM" in John 8:58, and therefore the word "I AM" in John 8:58 cannot be used as a proof of divinity for Jesus, it is without foundation and a very shaky one at best.
RESPONSE:
First, the reason why different translations of John 8:58 have different renderings has nothing to do with the Septuagint’s rendering of Exodus 3:14. Rather, it has to do with the context of John 8:58. Scholars have noted that the use of ego eimi in the context of John 8:58 is to highlight past existence that continues to the present moment. This is known as PPA, or present of past action still in progress, or simply as EP, extension from past idiom.
The Lord Jesus was claiming to have been in existence prior to the creation of Abraham, and that this existence was continuous.
The different renderings of John 8:58 are attempts to best express the force of the Greek construction in the target language. Yet herein lies the problem, namely the problem of the limitations of the English language. Reformed Christian Scholar and Apologist, Dr. James R. White comments on this problem:
"Allegedly many of these translations are viewing the phrase as what Dr. A. T. Robertson called a ‘progressive present.’ There are many instances in historical narrative or conversation where the Greek will use a present tense verb that is best rendered in English by the perfect tense. John 15:27 would be a good example: ‘because you have been with me from the beginning.’ The verb is in the present tense, but the context makes it clear that it is in reference to both the past and the present. Robertson notes that this is a common idiom in the New Testament, though he also adds the fact that, in his opinion, John 8:58 is ‘absolute’ and should be rendered as such (which he always does in his works). It should also be noted that it is the deficiency of the English that is to blame for the rendering-to place weight on the meaning of the English perfect tense when rendering the Greek present tense in this way would be in error." (White, The Forgotten Trinity- Recovering the Heart of Christi an Belief [Minneapolis MN; Bethany House Publishers, 1998], p. 97; bold emphasis ours)
We therefore see that the authors’ claim that the different readings, both ancient and modern, somehow prove their point to be simply erroneous. The Greek MSS are unanimous that ego eimi is the original rendering. The different translations are simply trying to best explain the meaning of ego eimi in the target language in which John’s Gospel has been translated.
Furthermore, in their haste to try and disprove any connection between Exodus 3:14 and John 8:58 the authors overlooked two essential points. First, the authors overlooked the fact that in the context of John 8:58 Jesus was contrasting Abraham’s creation with his timelessness. In other words, the Lord Jesus was claiming that the reason why Abraham was able to see Jesus is because, unlike Abraham, Jesus was not created and therefore has always existed. Note the context:
"‘Most assuredly, I say to you, if anyone keeps My word he shall never see death.’ Then the Jews said to Him, ‘Now we know that You have a demon! Abraham is dead, and the prophets; and You say, "If anyone keeps My word he shall never taste death.’ Are You greater than our father Abraham, who is dead? And the prophets are dead. WHO DO YOU MAKE YOURSELF OUT TO BE?’ Jesus answered, ‘If I honor Myself, My honor is nothing. IT IS MY FATHER WHO HONORS ME, of whom you say that He is your God. Yet you have not known Him, but I know Him. And if I say, "I do not know Him," I shall be a liar like you; but I do know Him and keep His word. Your father Abraham rejoiced to see My day, and he saw it and was glad.’ Then the Jews said to Him, ‘You are not yet fifty years old, and have You seen Abraham?’ Jesus said to them, ‘Most assuredly, I say to you, before Abraham was (genesthai- came into being), I AM.’ Then they took up stones to throw at Him; but Jesus hid Himself and went out of the temple, going through the midst of them, and so passed by." John 8:51-59 NKJV
Notice here that Abraham is said to have come into existence (genesthai) whereas Jesus simply is (ego eimi). Noted Christian scholar and apologist Robert M. Bowman Jr., in his response to Jehovah’s Witnesses, notes:
"What is it about this contrast between genesthai and eimi that has led to such a solid consensus throughout the centuries among biblical scholars that the words contrast created origin with uncreated eternal existence? BY ITSELF, of course, the word eimi does not connote eternal preexistence. However, placed alongside genesthai and referring to a time anterior to that indicated by genesthai, the word eimi (or its related forms), because it denotes simple existence and is a durative form of the verb to be, stands in sharp contrast to the aorist genesthai which speaks of ‘coming into being.’ It is this sharp contrast between being and becoming which makes it clear that in a text like John 8:58 eimi connotes eternality, not merely temporal priority. (Bowman, Jehovah's Witnesses Jesus Christ &The Gospel of John [Baker Book House; Grand Rapids, MI, 1995], p. 114; bold and capital emphasis ours)
And:
"He (Jesus) chose the term THAT WOULD MOST STRONGLY CONTRAST the created origin in time of Abraham with his own timeless eternality, the present tense verb eimi... Thus, had Jesus wished to say what JWs understand him to have saidthat he merely existed for a long time before Abrahamhe could have said so by saying, ‘Before Abraham came into existence, I was,’ using the imperfect tense emen instead of the present tense eimi. (This point was made by Chrysostom and Augustine, and reaffirmed by such Reformers as Calvin, and is also a standard observation found in most exegetical commentaries on John and never, to this author’s knowledge, disputed in such works.) Such a statement would have left open the question of whether or not Jesus had always existed, or whether (like the angels) he had existed from the earliest days of the universe’s history. Or, had he wished to make it clear that (as JWs believe) he had himself come into existence some time prior to Abraham, he could have said so by stating, ‘Before Abraham came into existence, I came into existence’ (by using the first person aorist egenomen instead of eimi), or perhaps more simply, ‘I came into existence before Abraham.’ Having said neither of these things, but rather, having chosen terms which went beyond these formulations to draw a contrast between the created and the uncreated, Jesus’ words must be interpreted as a claim to eternality." (Ibid., pp. 115-116; bold and capital emphasis ours)
(NOTE- For a listing of scholarly reference works endorsing Bowman’s conclusions we recommend our earlier article.)
In light of the preceding considerations, for Christ to claim to be timeless essentially means that he is eternal. Yet for Christ to be eternal means that he is Yahweh God, since only Yahweh is eternal. In other words, Christ being eternal makes him the Existing One (ho on) of Exodus 3:14!
Second, the authors failed to note the connection between Jesus’ I AM sayings with the I AM sayings of Yahweh as recorded in the OT. Note the following verses:
"See now that I myself am He! There is no god besides me. I put to death and I bring to life, I have wounded and I will heal, and no one can deliver out of my hand." Deuteronomy 32:39
Behold, behold that I AM he (ego eimi), and there is no god beside me: I kill, and I will make alive: I will smite, and I will heal; and there is none who shall deliver out of my hands. Deuteronomy 32:39 LXX
"‘All the nations gather together and the peoples assemble. Which of them foretold this and proclaimed to us the former things? Let them bring in their witnesses to prove they were right, so that others may hear and say, ‘It is true. You are my witnesses,’ declares the Lord, ‘and my servant whom I have chosen, so that you may know and believe me and understand that I am he. Before me no god was formed, nor will there be one after me. I, even I, am the Lord, and apart from me there is no savior. I have revealed and saved and proclaimedI, and not some foreign god among you. You are my witnesses,’ declares the Lord, ‘that I am God. Yes, AND FROM ANCIENT DAYS I AM HE. No one can deliver out of my hand. When I act, who can reverse it?" Isaiah 43:9-13
All the nations are gathered together, and princes shall be gathered out of them: who will declare these things? Or who will declare to you things from the beginning? Let them bring forth their witnesses, and be justified; and let them hear, and declare the truth. Be ye my witnesses, and I too am a witness, saith the Lord God, and my servant whom I have chosen: that ye may know, and believe (hina gnote kai pisteuseete), and understand that I AM he (ego eimi): before me there was no other God, and after me there shall be none. I am God; and beside me there is no Savior. I have declared and have said; I have reproached, and there was no strange god among you: ye are my witnesses that I am the Lord God, even from the beginning; and there is none that can deliver out of my hands: I will work, and who shall turn it back? LXX
"I, even I, am he who blots out your transgressions, for my own sake, and remembers your sins no more." Isaiah 43:25
I, even I, am he (ego eimi ego eimi - I AM I AM) that blots out thy transgressions for mine own sake, and thy sins; I will not remember them. LXX
"Even to your old age and gray hairs I am he, I am he who will sustain you. I have made you and I will carry you; I will sustain you and I will rescue you. To whom will you compare me or count me equal? To whom will you liken me that we may be compared?" Isaiah 46:4-5
I AM he (ego eimi); and until ye shall have grown old, I AM he (ego eimi): I bear you, I have made, and I will relieve, I will take up and save you. To whom have ye compared me? see, consider, ye that go astray. LXX
"I, even I, am he who comforts you. Who are you that you fear mortal men, the sons of men, who are but grass," Isaiah 51:12
I, even I, am he (ego eimi ego eimi - I AM I AM) that comforts thee: consider who thou art, that thou wast afraid of mortal man, and of the son of man, who are withered as grass. LXX
"Therefore my people will know my name; therefore in that day they will know that it is I who foretold it. Yes, it is I." Isaiah 52:6
Therefore shall my people know my name in that day, for I AM he (ego eimi) that speaks. LXX
In this last passage, the Greek can be read, "that ego eimi is the one who speaks," so that ego eimi functions as the name by which God will be known on the day of the Lord.
According to these passages Yahweh can say that he is the I AM because:
He gives life
He sustains and delivers
No one can deliver out of his hands
He is from ancient of days
He forgives and blots out sins
He alone declares the future and brings it to pass
He comforts his people
Compare Yahweh’s claims with the claims of the Lord Jesus:
"For just as the Father raises the dead and gives them life, even so the Son gives life to whom he is pleased to give it I tell you the truth, a time is coming and has now come when the dead will hear THE VOICE OF THE SON OF GOD and those who hear will live. For as the Father has life in himself, so he has granted the Son to have life in himself... Do not be amazed at this, for a time is coming when all who are in their graves will hear HIS VOICE and come outthose who have done good will rise to live, and those who have done evil will rise to be condemned." John 5:21, 25-26, 28-29
"And when evening came, his disciples went down to the sea,and having entered into the boat, they were going over the sea to Capernaum, and darkness had already come, and Jesus had not come unto them,the sea also - a great wind blowing - was being raised, having pushed onwards, therefore, about twenty-five or thirty furlongs, they behold Jesus walking on the sea, and coming nigh to the boat, and they were afraid;and he saith to them, I am [he] (ego eimi), be not afraid;they were willing then to receive him into the boat, and immediately the boat came unto the land to which they were going. John 6:16-21 Young’s Literal Translation
The Greek MSS are unanimous that ego eimi is the original rendering. The different translations are simply trying to best explain the meaning of ego eimi in the target language in which John’s Gospel has been translated.
He goes on;
First, the authors overlooked the fact that in the context of John 8:58 Jesus was contrasting Abraham’s creation with his timelessness. In other words, the Lord Jesus was claiming that the reason why Abraham was able to see Jesus is because, unlike Abraham, Jesus was not created and therefore has always existed. Note the context:
"‘Most assuredly, I say to you, if anyone keeps My word he shall never see death.’ Then the Jews said to Him, ‘Now we know that You have a demon! Abraham is dead, and the prophets; and You say, "If anyone keeps My word he shall never taste death.’ Are You greater than our father Abraham, who is dead? And the prophets are dead. WHO DO YOU MAKE YOURSELF OUT TO BE?’ Jesus answered, ‘If I honor Myself, My honor is nothing. IT IS MY FATHER WHO HONORS ME, of whom you say that He is your God. Yet you have not known Him, but I know Him. And if I say, "I do not know Him," I shall be a liar like you; but I do know Him and keep His word. Your father Abraham rejoiced to see My day, and he saw it and was glad.’ Then the Jews said to Him, ‘You are not yet fifty years old, and have You seen Abraham?’ Jesus said to them, ‘Most assuredly, I say to you, before Abraham was (genesthai- came into being), I AM.’ Then they took up stones to throw at Him; but Jesus hid Himself and went out of the temple, going through the midst of them, and so passed by." John 8:51-59 NKJV
Peg this rendering, IAM is more consistent with the context as the author points out. Simple pre-existence does and is not coveyed
"What is it about this contrast between genesthai and eimi that has led to such a solid consensus throughout the centuries among biblical scholars that the words contrast created origin with uncreated eternal existence? BY ITSELF, of course, the word eimi does not connote eternal preexistence. However, placed alongside genesthai and referring to a time anterior to that indicated by genesthai, the word eimi (or its related forms), because it denotes simple existence and is a durative form of the verb to be, stands in sharp contrast to the aorist genesthai which speaks of ‘coming into being.’ It is this sharp contrast between being and becoming which makes it clear that in a text like John 8:58 eimi connotes eternality, not merely temporal priority. (Bowman, Jehovah's Witnesses Jesus Christ &The Gospel of John [Baker Book House; Grand Rapids, MI, 1995], p. 114; bold and capital emphasis ours)
And:
"He (Jesus) chose the term THAT WOULD MOST STRONGLY CONTRAST the created origin in time of Abraham with his own timeless eternality, the present tense verb eimi... Thus, had Jesus wished to say what JWs understand him to have saidthat he merely existed for a long time before Abrahamhe could have said so by saying, ‘Before Abraham came into existence, I was,’ using the imperfect tense emen instead of the present tense eimi. (This point was made by Chrysostom and Augustine, and reaffirmed by such Reformers as Calvin, and is also a standard observation found in most exegetical commentaries on John and never, to this author’s knowledge, disputed in such works.) Such a statement would have left open the question of whether or not Jesus had always existed, or whether (like the angels) he had existed from the earliest days of the universe’s history.
To much consensus Peg and to many original language specifics for it to be ambiguous
here are the articles in thier entirity
http//http://www.answering-islam.org/Responses/Menj/tam2.htm
Peg writes:
Jesus teaching was based on who the father was. So why do you assume that John is only speaking about Jesus in Revelation. Considering revelation is a vision about the fulfillment of all that God promises, why would John leave the God that Jesus preached about out of the picture?
The assumption is that in Revelations both God and Christ are being spoken about, they are used interchangably, thats the point Peg. Its God which is being refrenced in the nature of Christ at times, with clear indications that he and the father are one as God.
if you could simply understand that the terms Father and Son have more specifically to do with his incarnation. There is simply God Peg, the terms father and Son are anthropomorphic, when applied to God in his eternal existence, there is no father and son, there is only God
If however, God chooses to represent the image of a father and Son throught eternity as it was on earth and as Stephen saw it, he certainly can, that is his choice. But one thing is certain, there is, was and only be God MANIFESTED in these fashions.
The only thing in existence is SPIRIT, the rest is representation, manifestation and reorganization of that material. It is no feat for God to sustain its existence forever, once reorganized or manifested ibn some other form than exact spirit. But the point is he could at an instant return it to its original Spirit form if so chose
Do you disagree that Jesus sits at Gods right hand?
Peg argumentation can be a fine art, think about how you are contradicting yourself.
First you say God is a Spirit and that no man has ever seen God, then you imply that Stephen for example saw Jesus standing beside God. if he saw Jesus standing beside God peg then he saw God as well. This would contradict that no man has ever seen God at any time.
If you reply to this is that it was a manifestation of God or vision of God, then it would follow that God could have accomplished the samething in Gen 18, to which you disagree, that it was an angel representing God.
Do you disagree that Jesus sits at Gods right hand?
Not at all Peg.
Peg, Sits, Stands, etc are anthro expressions. God in the form of Jesus became or was manifested (born literally) as God Son in a human form. Before this there was simply God, he was simply God
sits at the right hand, whether visible to someone like angels. or to men in visions or OUTRIGHT, is an expression of recievership, ownership and DESIGNATION. The writers can make these kinds of statements because God humbled himself and took on the form of a servant, yet he was still God. He CHOSE to do this for mankind
here is an example. "I will give to you Peter the KEYS to the kingdom", not literal metal objects, just ownership and recievership
You've heard the expression, "Ive got your back". this expression can have menaing whether I am in the persons presence or not
It is amazing that every single deatail concering who and what Christ was (God)and what he did, is wrapped up in just a few words in a single verse. Phil chapter 2. the whole plan is visible and explainable in just a couple of verses.
The the rest of the OT and NT only support further then expressions and contentions advocated in that passage
EAM
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This message is a reply to:
 Message 302 by Peg, posted 04-06-2010 3:14 AM Peg has replied

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kbertsche
Member (Idle past 2153 days)
Posts: 1427
From: San Jose, CA, USA
Joined: 05-10-2007


Message 310 of 492 (554079)
04-06-2010 11:09 AM
Reply to: Message 301 by Peg
04-06-2010 2:39 AM


Re: Granville Sharp
quote:
the Granville Sharp rule asserts that, since the article (the) is not repeated before the second noun (Savior), the two nouns refer to the same person or subject. This would mean that great God and Savior would both be descriptive of Jesus, as if the meaning were ‘of Jesus Christ, the great God and our Savior.’
...
And im confused as to what you mean by 'that doesnt meet the requirements of the GS rule'
in what way do the scriptures i gave, not meet his requirements??? The construction is the same...so what do you mean?
These are PART of the requirements for the GS rule, but not all of them. See the quote from Wallace in Message 287 for the full list of requirements. Here they are in my own words:
1) Two nouns (these can also be substantival adjectives or substantival participles, which act as nouns)
2) The nouns must both be personal (referring to persons), in the same case, and singular. They must not be proper nouns.
3) The first noun must be definite, with the definite article. The second noun must be indefinite, with no article.
4) The nouns must be connected with the copulative "kai" ("and") (i.e. no other intervening words)
The examples you gave (except for Eph 5:5) either have plurals or proper nouns ("Jesus" or "Christ Jesus"). So your examples do not meet the requirements laid down by Granville Sharp for his rule.
Whether or not Eph 5:5 meets the requirements can be disputed. It has the word "Christ" which is semantically NOT a proper noun. However, some grammarians claim that Paul DID use this as a proper noun in his letters. So it is questionable whether or not this one fits the rule.
quote:
so why don't all translators apply this rule to the verse in titus we are discussing? you havnt answered that yet.
I can't answer for them. Some translations predated Sharp's work, so tdid not understand the grammatical rule that he explained. Consider the title of Sharp's paper: Remarks on the Uses of the Definitive Article in the Greek Text of the New Testament: Containing many New Proofs of the Divinity of Christ, from Passages which are wrongly Translated in the Common English Version And consider Wallace's statement that "Sharp’s rule has been almost totally neglected, discounted, or misapplied in recent discussions on these passages."

This message is a reply to:
 Message 301 by Peg, posted 04-06-2010 2:39 AM Peg has replied

Replies to this message:
 Message 317 by Peg, posted 04-06-2010 8:10 PM kbertsche has replied

  
John 10:10
Member (Idle past 3017 days)
Posts: 766
From: Mt Juliet / TN / USA
Joined: 02-01-2006


Message 311 of 492 (554080)
04-06-2010 11:09 AM
Reply to: Message 295 by Peg
04-05-2010 7:18 PM


Re: The Lord is the Spirit
Peg writes,
"Now if you think that the Son is God because of what hebrews says, then you must also think that the prophets were God too, yes? "
Hebrews 1:1 does not say that the prophets were God. It simply says God spoke thru the prophets that came before Jesus.
But Hebrews 1:2 says that God the Father not only spoke thru God the Son, but that God the Son also made the world.
Maybe you can't or choose not to see the difference?
Maybe it's because you've not entered into the truth of what Jesus said in John 3:3-7,
3 Jesus answered and said to him, "Truly, truly, I say to you, unless one is born again he cannot see the kingdom of God."
4 Nicodemus said to Him, "How can a man be born when he is old ? He cannot enter a second time into his mother's womb and be born, can he?"
5 Jesus answered, "Truly, truly, I say to you, unless one is born of water and the Spirit he cannot enter into the kingdom of God.
6 "That which is born of the flesh is flesh, and that which is born of the Spirit is spirit.
7 "Do not be amazed that I said to you, 'You must be born again.'
Edited by John 10:10, : deleted extra word

This message is a reply to:
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JohnOneOne
Junior Member (Idle past 5126 days)
Posts: 1
From: Lancaster, Pa.
Joined: 11-12-2008


Message 312 of 492 (554118)
04-06-2010 2:39 PM
Reply to: Message 299 by Peg
04-05-2010 8:06 PM


In earliest NT teaching, Jesus was not the Almighty God.
It may interest you to know that there is soon to be published an 18+ year study (as of 01/2010) of this verse entitled, "What About John 1:1?"
To learn more of its design and expected release date, we invite you to visit:
What About John 1:1? - Prologue to the Gospel of John
Agape, JohnOneOne.

This message is a reply to:
 Message 299 by Peg, posted 04-05-2010 8:06 PM Peg has not replied

  
John 10:10
Member (Idle past 3017 days)
Posts: 766
From: Mt Juliet / TN / USA
Joined: 02-01-2006


Message 313 of 492 (554129)
04-06-2010 3:12 PM


It may interest some at this forum to know that a created being CANNOT create ANYTHING.
The only thing a created being can do is receive from and cooperate with our Creator.
For those who believe this is what Jesus said He did in John 5:19, listen up to what a wise Bible teacher Ray Stedman once said:
"When our Lord was here, He did not go around showing people how God behaved; He showed them how a man behaved - man indwelt by God, as God intended man to be. And all that you see in Jesus, during the days of His flesh, is a perfect humanity. His Deity was hidden, He didn't give it up - you can't give up what you are - but He laid aside the exercise of it."
Those who deny the Deity of the Lord Jesus cannot understand how God the Son could and did lay aside the exercise of His Deity, showing us how a man can and should live in perfect relationship with God the Father.
Edited by John 10:10, : No reason given.

  
Peg
Member (Idle past 4951 days)
Posts: 2703
From: melbourne, australia
Joined: 11-22-2008


Message 314 of 492 (554182)
04-06-2010 7:24 PM
Reply to: Message 307 by jaywill
04-06-2010 9:49 AM


Re: Jesus WAS God in earliest NT teaching
jaywill writes:
You teach polytheism in John 1:1 because the Word that was with God and was God is to your organization another God. You have two Gods in John 1:1.
that might be true if John 1:1 didnt actually say that Jesus was 'A' god and not 'THE' God.
There are plenty of other bible translations beside ours which shows that Jesus is 'A' god.
This does not result in worshiping many gods (polytheism)
jaywill writes:
If you accepted that the Logos is the God with also Whom He is WITH, then that would be monotheistic belief. As it stands you have to teach polytheism to deny the incarnation of Jehovah as the man Jesus Christ.
lol
Who was God speaking to in genesis when he said
"Let US make man in OUR image"
Obviously he was speaking to his Son Jesus. The one who has been with him from before the time that Abraham lived.

This message is a reply to:
 Message 307 by jaywill, posted 04-06-2010 9:49 AM jaywill has replied

Replies to this message:
 Message 318 by jaywill, posted 04-06-2010 10:18 PM Peg has replied
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Peg
Member (Idle past 4951 days)
Posts: 2703
From: melbourne, australia
Joined: 11-22-2008


Message 315 of 492 (554186)
04-06-2010 7:53 PM
Reply to: Message 308 by jaywill
04-06-2010 9:59 AM


jaywill writes:
Whatever the interpretation of who wisdom is in Proverbs 8, it only says that Jehovah possessed this entity. It does not say that Jehovah created this entity.
"Jehovah possessed me in the beginning of His way, Before His works of old.
I was set up from eternity, From the beginning, before the earth was." (Prov. 8:22,23)
Jaywill, you really need to compare your bible with different translations. Did you know the septuagint uses the word 'created'? Here are how other translators render the verse (i love biblegateway)
Prov 8:22-23 writes:
NIRV: 22 "The Lord created me as the first of his works, before his acts of long ago. 23 I was formed at the very beginning. I was formed before the world began.
NIV: 22 "The LORD brought me forth as the first of his works,
before his deeds of old; 23 I was appointed from eternity,
from the beginning, before the world began.
TheMessage: 22-23 "God sovereignly made methe first, the basic before he did anything else. I was brought into being a long time ago, well before Earth got its start.
NLT: 22 The Lord formed me from the beginning,
before he created anything else. 23 I was appointed in ages past,
at the very first, before the earth began.
NIV UK: 22The LORD brought me forth as the first of his works, before his deeds of old; 23 I was appointed from eternity, from the beginning, before the world began.
TNIV: 22 "The LORD brought me forth as the first of his works,
before his deeds of old; 23 I was formed long ages ago,
at the very beginning, when the world came to be.
NWT: Jehovah Produced me as the beginning of his way, the earliest of his achievments of long ago.
What i've just been looking for is the use of the word possessed. This word is translated from the Latin so i think the translators who use this word are translating from a latin manuscript, whereas the translators who use the word created or produced may be using the septuagint.
And remember, the septuagint translators were hebrew & greek speaking jews. They knew how to interpret hebrew into greek. The Hebrew word is qa.na'ni and it means to produce, to create or make. As you can see from the above translations, these are the words they used.
jaywill writes:
You cannot extrapolate from Proverbs 8 that Jehovah CREATED another God first, called Wisdom.
Then there is the question that, if God DID create Wisdom how did God have the Wisdom to do so before Wisdom was created ?
If Wisdom is an attribute of the eternal God then Wisdom was as long as God was.
thats exactly right and its for this reason that wisdom is not what was being spoken about in Prov 8.
I noticed the Amplified bible uses the word wisdom.
22The Lord formed and brought me [Wisdom] forth at the beginning of His way, before His acts of old. 23 I [Wisdom] was inaugurated and ordained from everlasting, from the beginning, before ever the earth existed.
They then use a cross reference to John 1:1 indicating that this 'wisdom' is actually Jesus. So i guess they also view Prov 8 as refering to Jesus. But it doesnt make a lot of sense using the word 'wisdom' because that confuses the issue unless readers actually use the cross references.
Anyway, Prov 8 shows that Jesus was with Jehovah, that Jesus was a created being and that is why he is called Gods Only Begotten Son.
Edited by Peg, : No reason given.

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