Is mathematics objective? Do mathematical constructs "exist" externally to the minds of those who conceive them?
Well I would say that mathematical constructs are
our way to desipher the reality we find ourselves in. In a way that we can all agree on. It exists within our subjective, yet agreed upon, framework of reality. But that which we are trying to figure out
is objective, and exists whether we can understand it or not.
But can we have non-empirical forms of objectivity?
And if we can does that lend credence to "religious" claims of such objectivity (e.g. multiple experiences of "something" equates to the objectivisation of "something").
Lets take the religious claim of multiple experiences; all there is empirical evidence for is the experience, and even then you are still left with second hand information. But lets say we plugged them into a machine and pinpointed where exactly in the brain the experience was taking place, that would be objective evidence for an experience.
Now, their
interpretation of the experience can only be subjective, by definition.
Likewise, lets take science. A scientist's interpretation of evidence is of course subjective, but the evidence remains objective. If it wasn't then there wouldn't be many other scientist trying to interpret the same evidence.
To me it seems clear how to distinguish the two.
Does that make sense? Feel free to ignore or even belittle if not.
I think it did, and I hope I answered it coherently too.
- Oni