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Author | Topic: Textual Discrepancies & How They Could Impact Christianity | |||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||
kbertsche Member (Idle past 2157 days) Posts: 1427 From: San Jose, CA, USA Joined: |
quote:I wouldn't put all of these on an equal level, but let's go with your list for now. quote:I don't understand why anyone would want to rely on Bart Ehrman; he puts forth a minority view which flies in the face of mainstream historical and biblical scholarship. quote:This verse is a late addition to the text. It is not original. It is not included in most modern translations. But its absence does NOT impact the doctrine of the Trinity. There are plenty of other verses that attribute deity to Jesus and to the Holy Spirit. quote:How does this relate to the 12 "basic tenets of Christianity" that you quoted above? I don't see this as any of them. quote:1) Again, I don't see how this relates to any of the "basic tenets of Christianity" that you quoted above. 2) Essentially all of the information in the last part of Mark (which I agree is non-original) can be found at the end of Matthew, the end of Luke, or the beginning of Acts, all of which ARE original.
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kbertsche Member (Idle past 2157 days) Posts: 1427 From: San Jose, CA, USA Joined: |
purpledawn writes:
Ehrman is telling us nothing new here. The Greek "Textus Receptus" added a number of words, phrases, and verses that were not in the originals and are not in the Greek "critical texts." This was known since before the Reformation, at least, when Erasmus published the first critical text. Ehrman's book is simply the source for the top ten most familiar verses that weren't "originally" in the New Testament. Whether one agrees with Ehrman's conclusions or not, either these verses were in the oldest manuscripts or they weren't. This discussion is about verses that aren't in the oldest manuscripts and how they impact Christianity. Address my arguments, not Ehrman's. But the verses which were not in the oldest manuscripts are likewise not included in most modern translations (e.g. NASB, NIV, NET), either. (If they are included at all, it is in footnotes or in parentheses with notes that these were not original.) So your thesis doesn't make sense to me. If these verses were not there originally, and are not in our modern texts (or are included but clearly stated to be non-original), how much can they have influenced either historic or modern Christianity?
purpledawn writes:
No, I did read your argument and links. But I don't fully agree with your sources, their implications, or your inferences. "Bible Knowledge Ministries - Bible Teaching Website" appears to be a non-scholarly lay website, which I have never heard of before. It is hardly an accepted authority on Christianity. Didn't really read my argument did you or the links I provided? The Doctrine of the Trinity is:Simply put, the doctrine of the Trinity states that there is: One God in three Persons The Doctrine of the Trinity was formulated in 325 AD at the council of Nicea. We have no textual evidence of the Trinitarian claim in 1 Jn 5:7 "until the 1500s" (Wallace); it was probably added after the formulation of the Doctrine of the Trinity in 325. Historically, the doctrine of the Trinity was formulated to resolve the biblical claims that 1) God is one, 2) the Father is God, 3) Jesus is God, 4) the Holy Spirit is God. Each of these claims is based on undisputedly original passages of Scripture. The historical doctrine of the Trinity almost certainly did not derive from 1 John 5:7, since the Trinitarian phrase in this passage almost certainly did not exist at the time. Modern Evangelical scholarship also does not defend the doctrine of the Trinity from 1 John 5:7, since modern Evangelical scholars do not believe the Trinitarian phrase was original.
purpledawn writes:
Here I apparently misread your argument. Since you immediately followed this with the "basic tenets of Christianity" I thought you were speaking of the "basic tenets", not non-basic secondary issues over which there is significant difference of opinion.
kbertsche writes:
Again, didn't read my arguments. From Message 1: For that reason I would also like to look at how these discrepancies could also impact general Christian layperson beliefs, practices, and traditions that may or may not be the same across the sects of Christianity. How does this relate to the 12 "basic tenets of Christianity" that you quoted above? I don't see this as any of them. purpledawn writes:
Mk 16:1-8 is probably original. Mk 16:9-20 is probably a later addition, based largely on other biblical accounts.
kbertsche writes:
Mark and Matthew are different. Luke and Acts don't really address the same thing. I'd appreciate it if you would provide the verse numbers when referring to other verses. Then I know we are looking at the same verses. 1) Again, I don't see how this relates to any of the "basic tenets of Christianity" that you quoted above.2) Essentially all of the information in the last part of Mark (which I agree is non-original) can be found at the end of Matthew, the end of Luke, or the beginning of Acts, all of which ARE original. Mk 16:9-11 speaks of Jesus' resurrection and post-resurrection appearance to Mary, and her reporting to the disciples. This seems to be based largely on Lk 24:10-11, and partly on Mt 28:9-10 and Jn 20:14-18. Mk 16:12-13 speaks of Jesus' appearance to two men on the road to Emmaus. It seems to be a very brief summary of Lk 24:13-35. Mk 16:14-18 contains the Great Commission and comments about handling serpents and miraculous healing. The Great Commission is similar (but not identical) to Mt 28:16-20 and Acts 1:1-11. The comments about miraculous healing and handling serpents are not at the end of any of the other gospels, but may be based on Acts 28:1-6. Mk 16:19-20 appears to be a very brief summary of the book of Acts.
purpledawn writes:
Agreed. Perhaps this addition to Mark also added elements from Jesus' sending out of the his disciples (Mt 10:1-16; Mk 6:7-11; Lk 9:1-5; 10:1-12).
The Matthew version of the Great Commission is the most familiar, but it isn't the same as Mark. The task in Mark is to proclaim the "good news", not teach. The door to door Christians aren't trying to teach anyone to obey what Jesus had commanded, they are spreading the "good news" and telling people they are condemned if they don't believe and become a Christian. (Note also that the Great Commission as recorded by Matthew contains the Trinitarian phrase "baptizing them in the name of the Father and the Son and the Holy Spirit." And this phrase does seem to be part of the original text.)
purpledawn writes:
Yes, I suspect this was drawn from events in Acts, such as Acts 28:1-6.
The addition to Mark also brings up the idea that these signs accompany those who believe: driving out demons, speaking in tongues, handling snakes, drinking poison, and healing people. purpledawn writes:
Most modern Bible translations state that Acts 16:9ff is not original, and either put it in parentheses or in a footnote. Thus many laypersons do not even read these verses. Most biblical scholars (including Evangelical scholars) believe that these verses were not original. Most Evangelical seminaries caution their students against preaching on such passages as if they were original. Few careful, scholarly Evangelical pastors would do so.
I still feel that the commission in Mark impacts the layperson differently than the commission in Matthew. The churches that handle snakes and drink poison probably wouldn't be doing those rituals if the text wasn't added or preachers stopped using it. purpledawn writes:
Yes. Again, the verb "preaching" could have come from Jesus' sending of His disciples, or from events of Acts.
There's a difference between teaching (mathteu) and preaching (kruss). So in Matthew, they were to gain students and teach them the commands that Jesus had taught his own students, not preach the "good news".
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kbertsche Member (Idle past 2157 days) Posts: 1427 From: San Jose, CA, USA Joined: |
purpledawn writes:
I don't see the relevance of this to your case. 1 John 5:7 was NOT the path used in the original historical formulation of the Doctrine of the Trinity. It is NOT the path used by Evangelical scholars today. Its in-authenticity does NOT impact Christianity. So why is it relevant?
1 John 5:7 was the cleanest path and is used by some to support the Doctrine of the Trinity. The other path takes a lot more work and squinting to make the case. purpledawn writes:
Yes, some people are "KJV only". And some people believe in geocentrism or in a flat earth. Very few scholars support any of these views. Some people are KJV only and do use 1 John 5:7 to support the Trinity. Have all groups opted out? (Note: There ARE a few scholars who believe that the TR [Textus Receptus] is more accurate than the critical texts. I knew Art Farstad, who was the main translator of the NKJV translation. Art was a true scholar. But he was certainly not a "KJV only" advocate; he read daily from the Greek text.)
purpledawn writes:
Yes, a different verb is used, and it has a slightly different focus. The in-authentic end of Mark seems to combine themes from other Scriptures which ARE authentic. So again, I don't see how the in-authenticity of the end of Mark impacts Christianity.
Again rephrasing. So we agree the commission expressed in Mark is a different task than in Matthew.
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kbertsche Member (Idle past 2157 days) Posts: 1427 From: San Jose, CA, USA Joined: |
purpledawn writes:
Nearly every pastor who has studied Greek in seminary knows these things. Pastors are the normal conduit between the scholars and the laypersons. Scholars have known about these discrepancies for centuries, but the layperson hasn't and doesn't know about them depending on how and if they actually study the Bible. Most laypersons use modern Bible translations, such as NIV or NASB. Most of these know that their Bibles omit a few verses that are in the KJV, and many have read their footnotes explaining that these verses are not found in the oldest manuscripts. So many laypersons DO know these things. But I can also also believe that many do not. I can't say whether or not the average layperson knows these things. I don't know if any surveys of such lay knowledge have been done.
purpledawn writes:
No, the Doctrine of the Trinity is based on the Bible, as the participants in the Council of Nicea would strongly affirm! The Bible teaches that God is one. The Bible also teaches that three persons (Father, Son, and Holy Spirit) are God. The Doctrine of the Trinity is the simultaneous affirmation of both biblical truths, stating that God is one substance or essence in three persons.
In general, these discrepancies are relevant because they show that Christian Tenets and Doctrines are not based on the Bible. purpledawn writes:
I don't know what you mean by this, and suspect that I probably disagree.
The New Testament writings are based on the various Christian beliefs that started developing in the first century and were adjusted at times to support the culture and orthodox group as they developed. purpledawn writes:
I agree that a number of "clarifications" were added to the so-called "Byzantine" texts, including the two examples you gave (1 Jn 5:7 and the last part of Mark).
These discrepancies also show us that early Christians had no problem changing the texts when needed purpledawn writes:
No, this does not follow. The early church recognized the Bible as its source of authority.
and that the church gave authority to the writings in the Bible. The Bible is not the source of authority. purpledawn writes:
You claimed this, but I didn't see where you showed it. To do so you would need to show that either: As I showed with the Johannine Comma, the support for the Doctrine of the Trinity in the New Testament is very soft without it.1) The Bible does not clearly teach that God is one, or, 2) The Bible does not clearly teach that three persons (Father, Son, and Holy Spirit) are God. purpledawn writes:
No, Christians will not drop the Doctrine because it is biblical.
Does that mean that Christians are going to drop the doctrine? Of course not, because the Bible isn't the basis for the belief. That's why we have apologetics. purpledawn writes:
That's not quite true; you looked to scholarship to find verses that were added later. But if you're trying to say that many lay Christians rely on poor, unscholarly reasoning and arguments, I would agree.
I'm not really addressing what scholars teach and don't teach. Churches I've belonged to don't address half the stuff we do here at EvC. The arguments that are presented here at EvC are what inspired the topic. purpledawn writes:
Exactly.
Even the Trinitarian phrase in Matthew is a little suspect to some scholars, but since it is in the oldest manuscripts, the doubts are based on the actual baptizing practices found in the New Testament writings.
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kbertsche Member (Idle past 2157 days) Posts: 1427 From: San Jose, CA, USA Joined: |
Geisler & Nix writes: The textural critic has given a studied judgment on many of these significant variants, so that for all practical purposes the modern critical editions of the Hebrew and Greek texts of the Bible represent, with their footnotes, exactly what the autographs contained - line for line, word for word, and even letter for letter. purpledawn writes: Since we don't have the original autographs, no one can prove whether they are true or not. These discrepancies do show us that changing what was written was not uncommon no matter the reason. Your claim is disingenuous (or perhaps just confused). Geisler & Nix are speaking of the critical texts ("modern critical editions of the Hebrew and Greek texts of the Bible"). The variants that you showed in the OP, from Ehrman, are from Byzantine texts. These are two different things. Geisler & Nix are correct that the critical texts have no variations that affect major Christian doctrines, and that they allow us to work back toward the original text with fairly high confidence. You (and Ehrman) are correct that the later Byzantine texts have a number of changes. These are primarily expansions and clarifications to the text, for a good reason. The culture had changed, and some clarification of the original setting was deemed necessary. BUT precisely because the Byzantine texts are later, their changes are irrelevant to the critical texts, to the claims of Geisler & Nix, and to modern Bible translations such as NASB and NIV, which are translated from the critical texts. Edited by kbertsche, : No reason given.
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kbertsche Member (Idle past 2157 days) Posts: 1427 From: San Jose, CA, USA Joined: |
quote:Interesting suggestion; I haven't really thought about this in connection with the Trinity. I'm initially skeptical; as we've already discussed, the Bible clearly says that God is one, and that three separate persons are all God. How does one reconcile this without something similar to the Trinity? Maybe with some sort of more "modalistic" understanding, similar to the Eastern churches (e.g. Nestorian)? But I agree that there have been many instances of Platonic philosophy mixing with (and contaminating) Christian theology. We see this in the Medieval explanation of transubstantiation, for example. Also in the Aristotelian geocentrism which plagued Galileo; this was based more on Platonic idealism than on biblical interpretation. "Science without religion is lame, religion without science is blind." — Albert Einstein I am very astonished that the scientific picture of the real world around me is very deficient. It gives us a lot of factual information, puts all of our experience in a magnificently consistent order, but it is ghastly silent about all and sundry that is really near to our heart, that really matters to us. It cannot tell us a word about red and blue, bitter and sweet, physical pain and physical delight; it knows nothing of beautiful and ugly, good or bad, God and eternity. Science sometimes pretends to answer questions in these domains, but the answers are very often so silly that we are not inclined to take them seriously. — Erwin Schroedinger
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kbertsche Member (Idle past 2157 days) Posts: 1427 From: San Jose, CA, USA Joined: |
quote:Yes, "master" is the basic meaning of the Greek kurios (lord). But this is also the word used to translate "YHWH" in the Septuagint. So if "Lord" appears in the NT in the context of an OT phrase or quotation, it generally has the implication of "YHWH," not just "master." quote: I believe we see a number of NT authors using "Lord" in the sense of the OT "YHWH", and equating Jesus with YHWH. Here are a few examples:
NET Bible writes:
John 20:28 Thomas replied to him, My Lord and my God! Acts 2:25 For David says about him,‘I saw the Lord always in front of me, for he is at my right hand so that I will not be shaken. Acts 2:34 For David did not ascend into heaven, but he himself says, ‘The Lord said to my lord, Sit at my right hand Acts 2:36 Therefore let all the house of Israel know beyond a doubt that God has made this Jesus whom you crucified both Lord and Christ. Rom. 10:9 because if you confess with your mouth that Jesus is Lord and believe in your heart that God raised him from the dead, you will be saved.
Edited by kbertsche, : No reason given.
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