Summations Only

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If diphtheria had caused a big problem in those days then at least 90% percent of the Ethnic groups in Europe would have disappeared; however that is not what reality tells us.

Up to the present time no evidence demonstrated from real facts was presented on why it would have been impossible for Humans to have reached a population of 1 million persons in less than 20 thousand years, when the population was 10,000

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Edited by CrazyDiamond7, : update

Since when have any of your statements been grounded in reality? Every one of your posts is made up from whole cloth.

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That is another reason why you should come up with something better.

Especially because whoever brings up a theory (that places human beings living on the Earth 70 thousand years ago) should be able to explain it regardless of other persons words

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The fact that we find modern human skeletons that are 70,000 years old indicates that there were modern humans around 70,000 years ago. We tend to call this "evidence", something which you seem unfamiliar with.

In the OP you stated:

"The real fact is that regardless of disease, natural disasters, wars and famine, human population has never stopped growing."

You have not demonstrated this fact. It is made up out of whole cloth. If this is your theory then you should be able to cite the evidence that supports it.

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In regards to the Ethnic groups in Europe, if their population would have ever stopped growing then it could also be true that their growth is very dependent on technological advances;

However, there is a huge flaw that many don't want to see; Consider that most of our current technological advances have ocurred within the last 200 years,

one could even go back to the last 1,000 years and it would still prove that the natural selection theory (in regards to the origin of this most recent version of Human beings) is incorrect.

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How is one related to the other?

If I took a modern human baby and transported it to an island where it never came into contact with modern technology or any knowledge garnered over the last 5,000 years would that child be able to rediscover quantum mechanics in it's lifetime?

At the same time, if that baby grew up in modern society with access to modern knowledge could that baby grow up to be a scientist who studies quantum mechanics?

Obviously, this has nothing to do with natural selection directly.

Edited by Taq, : No reason given.

But some of the most important ones occurred much earlier:

(Click on the image to enlarge; those Acheulean handaxes were hot stuff for tens of thousands of years!)

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That is another reason why the technology subject is now obsolete to offer any answer of value to the O.P.,

knowing that the left behind prototypes has nothing to do with ancestry

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How do we know that? Evidence please.

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That a skeleton of left behind prototypes, dated at 30,000 years, has nothing to do with ancestry is evident; Were they placed on the Earth to constitute families, there would be found bodies of at least 2 families in a certain place,

because humans tend to gather the dead bodies of their parents or children not too far from one another.

The search engine does often bring up cemeteries dated at about 4,000 or 5,000, but not at 30 or 40,000

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How do you determine if two bodies are from two families? What evidence are you using?

What about nomadic people who migrate large distances in a single year? How did you determine that all of our ancestors followed the same practices as we do? Evidence please.

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The rest of the sentence clears up that it's a tendency;
not a determined thing.

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Then all we have is your unevidenced assertion that 30,000 year old humans are not our ancestors.

However, DNA can tell us if these 30,000 year old humans were our ancestors. Guess what? That work has been done.

quote:

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A 28,000 years old Cro-Magnon mtDNA sequence differs from all potentially contaminating modern sequences.

Caramelli D, Milani L, Vai S, Modi A, Pecchioli E, Girardi M, Pilli E, Lari M, Lippi B, Ronchitelli A, Mallegni F, Casoli A, Bertorelle G, Barbujani G.

Dipartimento di Biologia Evoluzionistica, Università di Firenze, Firenze, Italy.

Abstract
BACKGROUND: DNA sequences from ancient specimens may in fact result from undetected contamination of the ancient specimens by modern DNA, and the problem is particularly challenging in studies of human fossils. Doubts on the authenticity of the available sequences have so far hampered genetic comparisons between anatomically archaic (Neandertal) and early modern (Cro-Magnoid) Europeans.

METHODOLOGY/PRINCIPAL FINDINGS: We typed the mitochondrial DNA (mtDNA) hypervariable region I in a 28,000 years old Cro-Magnoid individual from the Paglicci cave, in Italy (Paglicci 23) and in all the people who had contact with the sample since its discovery in 2003. The Paglicci 23 sequence, determined through the analysis of 152 clones, is the Cambridge reference sequence, and cannot possibly reflect contamination because it differs from all potentially contaminating modern sequences.

CONCLUSIONS/SIGNIFICANCE: The Paglicci 23 individual carried a mtDNA sequence that is still common in Europe, and which radically differs from those of the almost contemporary Neandertals, demonstrating a genealogical continuity across 28,000 years, from Cro-Magnoid to modern Europeans. Because all potential sources of modern DNA contamination are known, the Paglicci 23 sample will offer a unique opportunity to get insight for the first time into the nuclear genes of early modern Europeans.
http://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pubmed/18628960

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So I have evidence that 30,000 year old modern humans in Europe have descendants in Europe today. What evidence do you have to the contrary?

Really? And you know this for *most* cultures of 20,000 years ago how, exactly? Is that why the Parsis of India let vultures eat their dead? Individually?