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Author | Topic: Thoughts on the Creator Conclusion | |||||||||||||||||||||||
Taq Member Posts: 10082 Joined: Member Rating: 5.1 |
If we can't show how a cell and DNA form from purely chemical processes (with lack of purpose, design or deliberation) we have no reason, (scientific or otherwise) to conclude that "how" a cell and DNA functions is the same as "why" it functions. Can you tell us which step in the formation of a cell is not a chemical process?
It's like claiming a computer functions as a direct result of its parts, when in reality, a computer functions as a direct result of it being designed to work and perform certain tasks. If you break down and separate all the computer's components, it will cease to function and exist as a computer. It will lack purpose. The purpose of a computer is determined by how humans use it to perform tasks. So how does this creator use life towards a purpose, and what objective evidence do you have to back this up?
The most convincing proof of abiogenesis would be observation in nature, not anything "formulated" in the laboratory, b/c then you could never technically remove the mind and deliberation aspect from the process. Does the same level of evidence apply to the creator as well? Are you proposing a creator because you have observed this creator making life?
The fact that we as humans have the will and ability to reason (and to a degree know) which has enabled us to basically shape and re-shape society (through the creation of systems, and designs) should behoove us to appreciate that the systems and mechanisms we observe in nature are also a result of knowledge, will, mind, and design. Why? Humans are able to shape and design machines that produce ice, so does this mean that all ice is likewise produced by some designed freezer? Or could it be that nature is capable of doing what humans are capable of doing?
The universe can ultimately be explained simply by an original "knowing" existence, a Being, an eternal source, a self-existing, uncreated Creator. How did you determine that this explanation is true?
The universe doesn't begin with pure scratch, raw materials, potential, and lack of knowledge. It begins with a Creator. Based on what evidence?
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Taq Member Posts: 10082 Joined: Member Rating: 5.1 |
The DNA codes for the leaf to appear in specific places as it does for the branches, as well as the bark.
It's not all that specific. For example, a plant that is receiving more light on one side than the other will grow more leaves on the sunny side. There are many environmental factors that interact with the proteins produced by DNA that result in the leaf distribution we observe. This is true for all of the features on a tree. We can even look at the pattern of annual rings in a tree to decipher what the environment was like in the past. Thinner rings indicate a shorter or dryer growing season while thicker rings indicate a wetter or longer growing season.
I will assume from that statement you have never looked at a blueprint. If you gave a blueprint to someone who had never done any construction whatsoever would they be able to build the house to code based on the blueprint alone? Last I checked, blueprints did not include instructions on how to sweat a joint. Blueprints are an abstract representation of what is to be built. DNA is not abstract. It is the building material itself.
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Taq Member Posts: 10082 Joined: Member Rating: 5.1 |
If the designer did not put the information in the first cell including the instructions of how to replicate itself where did that information come from? That is what scientists are researching right now. 2,000 years ago people could have asked how lightning was produced if it wasn't the creation of Zeus. Just because no one at the time had a valid scientific explanation did this make the Zeus explanation correct? No. So why is the origin of information in the genome of the first life any different?
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Taq Member Posts: 10082 Joined: Member Rating: 5.1 |
Given these circumstances, I must ask: can you show the existence of the Creator in a way that doesn't require us to first assume that Creator's existence? To help drive this point home an analogy might be useful. Let's say that Frank has been accused of murdering Sally. The case goes to trial. The prosecution presents a very simple case. The most damning evidence, according to the prosecution, is that Sally is dead which is completely consistent with Frank killing her. Even more, no one has offered any other evidence that Phil did it, therefore it had to be Frank. That is all the evidence that the prosecution has put forth. Is that a convincing argument?
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Taq Member Posts: 10082 Joined: Member Rating: 5.1 |
This dogma you speak of is uniformitarian dogma. The very same dogma that you use every second of every day. Do you chain yourself to the floor every night incase gravity becomes a repulsive force in the middle of the night? If not, then you ascribe to the same uniformitarian dogma that we do.
Once again, you have diverted the issue at hand by redefining "uniformitarian". Uniformitarianism is the idea that physical laws are the same through space and time. That's it. Therefore, the things we see happening now are guided by the same laws and principles as the same events in the past. This is the assumption that you use every single second of your life.
My default position is that all things are created by God (logos), . . . Based on what evidence and what reasoning?
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Taq Member Posts: 10082 Joined: Member Rating: 5.1 |
Of course not, but that is a natural result of any system: it cannot be used to prove itself. Coincidentally, when the system in question is logic, attempting to prove it with any other system makes our proof, by definition, illogical. Unfortunately, though, your 'argument from definitions' does not support the existence of the Creator. Goldrush has tacitly agreed to these rules, however. Goldrush has stated many times that the conclusion of a creator is a logical conclusion reached through reason. When Goldrush fails to describe this reasoning and spouts logical fallacies we can only deduce that Goldrush has failed to meet his own criteria.
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Taq Member Posts: 10082 Joined: Member Rating: 5.1 |
If we accept logic as valid, we must accept that it is valid because of a higher source over it, governing it. But why does that higher source have to be a creator deity? Why can't it be an unintelligent source, such as the interaction of M-Branes as described by String Theory?
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Taq Member Posts: 10082 Joined: Member Rating: 5.1 |
The scientific method is not intended to replace the need for logical inference, only to establish a basis of objectivity for logical inference. All it does is try to limit variables to uncover certain laws, principles, or "truths". If you are not using the scientific method then you need to spell out the epistemology that you are using. What are the rules of logic that you are using? Are your rules so liberal as to include flights of fancy alongside empirical evidence? Are ideas conceived from fantasy on the same level as evidenced theories? How do we differentiate between false beliefs and true beliefs within the system of logic that you are using?
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Taq Member Posts: 10082 Joined: Member Rating: 5.1 |
Well, it appears we've run into that old familiar scenario: the creationist impasse. Repeated attempts to draw the arguments out of goldrush that he claims support his conclusion have landed on deaf ears. To be fair, I think goldrush did spell out the arguments. It took on two forms: 1. Argument from incredulity: Goldrush can't see how natural mechanisms can produce what he sees, so it has to be supernatural in origin by default. 2. Negative Argument/Argument from Ignorance: No one can prove that creator didn't do it, therefore the beginning assumption of a creator is kept. What goldrush failed to do is produce arguments that were not logical fallacies (according to the common rules of logic that we are all used to).
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Taq Member Posts: 10082 Joined: Member Rating: 5.1 |
But why is all discussion as if it was a fact that it was acquired over time by natural selection and mutations? This may very well be a case of "lost in translation". The subtleties of science-talk are not always that obvious to the layperson. Given the success of the theory of evolution it is the best choice for the foundation of their work. It is assumed that there is an evolutionary pathway, and their research is trying to discover this pathway. Evolution is not assumed as a "fact" [i]of absolute truth, but it is assumed as a fact for the purposes of the research. To use an analogy, meteorologists assume that every cloud is the product of condensed water vapor. When they state that a specific cloud is made up of water vapor it is not because they have sent a probe into each and every cloud to make sure that it is water vapor and not magical cotton candy. On top of that, if their assumption of condensed water vapor was wrong then the mountains of previous research within meteorology should have caught it by now, and it hasn't. So to boil it down, scientists are assuming that the last 150 years of solid scientific discovery is correct.
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Taq Member Posts: 10082 Joined: Member Rating: 5.1 |
Which is based upon their assumptions. They are assuming that there is an evolutionary pathway to discover given the success of the theory over the last 150 years.
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Taq Member Posts: 10082 Joined: Member Rating: 5.1 |
message deleted. Replied to same post twice.
Edited by Taq, : No reason given.
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Taq Member Posts: 10082 Joined: Member Rating: 5.1 |
If it is true that our brains, (and our logic) are a product of evolution, how can we trust logic to prove anything? Logic is not a product of evolution any more than geometry is a product of evolution. The sum of the angles in a triangle do add up to 180 degrees whether or not humans exist. There is a very real world out there, and logic is one of the means that we use to model it. We can trust our logic because it works, and we can demonstrate that it works. We can also demonstrate why logical fallacies do not work, such as the fallacies you have used as an argument in this thread. Reality is not confined to what we consider reasonable or "common sense".
How can we ever be sure we are right (or will ever be right) about anything? By applying it and testing it.
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Taq Member Posts: 10082 Joined: Member Rating: 5.1 |
So logic exists outside of our brains and evolution? I would argue yes, in the same way that the angles of a triangle add up to 180 degrees whether or not humans exist.
How would we know this if it weren't for our brains or ability to reason?
Does 2+2 equal 4 just because we say so?
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Taq Member Posts: 10082 Joined: Member Rating: 5.1 |
Since we agree that logic holds true beyond us and evolution, on what basis does logic hold true? What governs logic? Why does it need governing?
BTW, to say that logic is true b/c it works ("is logical") is circular reasoning which is a logical fallacy. False. It could be that logic does not work, and therefore is false.
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