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Author | Topic: What Genesis Two Says | |||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||
Buzsaw Inactive Member
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In Message 120 Percy Proclaims Problems Pertaining To Scripture.
Percy writes: foreveryoung writes:
How can a literally inerrant Bible contain one account that is correct and another that is incorrect? Shouldn't both accounts agree and be correct? The first book gives an order of events from God's point of view. The second book gives a summary from adam's point of view Where in the Bible does it say that Genesis 2 is from Adam's point of view? How come the God and Science website doesn't know that Genesis 2 is from Adam's point of view?
Nothing contradictory there. Just to pick out one thing that is contradictory, Genesis 1 says that man was created after the animals, while Genesis 2 says he was created before. Sounds like a contradiction to me. First off, Percy is correct in that Genesis two is not from Adam's POV. Genesis two begins with a statement capping the sequential Genesis one record of generation/origins/beginnings of planet earth. That Genesis two preface is followed by a non-sequential account of pertinent points pertaining to God's work of Genesis one. For example, another problem some find is that though the plant life was created on day three, Genesis two says no seeds had yet sprouted because there was no man yet to till the ground. Explanation: Notice in Genesis three, after the curse that the ground was cursed due to God's curse. Adam was to become a tiller of the ground and herbs/plants were to be his food, for the first time in his life. Notice that in Genesis one, the fruit of the tree was to be his fruit No tilling of the ground. All the need do was pluck the fruit of the trees. Also in Genesis one the ground was watered from a ground mist rather than from the atmosphere. After the ground was cursed that changed so as for falling moisture to water the tilled ground where Adam was to till and plant his food. There are other examples of the consequence the fall, including the cursing of the reptilian species which I've debated in other threads. BUZSAW B 4 U 2 C Y BUZ SAW. The Immeasurable Present Eternally Extends the Infinite Past And Infinitely Consumes The Eternal Future. Someone wisely said something ;ike, "Before fooling with a fool, make sure the fool is a fool."
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jar Member (Idle past 99 days) Posts: 34140 From: Texas!! Joined: |
Where does it say that Genesis 2 is not sequential?
Anyone so limited that they can only spell a word one way is severely handicapped!
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Buzsaw Inactive Member
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jar writes: Where does it say that Genesis 2 is not sequential? You read it and go figure. It's not sequential in all aspects that Genesis one is. Ask Percy That was his point in the message link. No? Did you read the Percy message link? Edited by Buzsaw, : No reason given.
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NoNukes Inactive Member
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Why would we assume that the language is sequential? That's only one possible way to organize the story. If you really want to make a convincing argument regarding contradictions, I would think you would want to stick with explicit statements.
As I read Genesis 2, I don't see a lot of words that mandating a sequence, however, I do see wording saying that God was making animals and then sending to Adam for naming. Quite frankly, that example also seems to be the only easy one. The making and naming language does seem to be explicitly sequential. There is at least a hint that these are new animals, but it could be that God was making copies and bringing the copies around for Adam for naming. But only a few people would feel the need to read that language hyper literally anyway. Perhaps the verses just convey the not so profound concept that God created the world by whatever method, and that humans subsequently named the animals as they encountered them. In other words, the language is only an issue for people like foreveryoung who consider Christians who are not hyper-literalists to be practically atheists.Under a government which imprisons any unjustly, the true place for a just man is also in prison. Thoreau: Civil Disobedience (1846) The apathy of the people is enough to make every statue leap from its pedestal and hasten the resurrection of the dead. William Lloyd Garrison
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NoNukes Inactive Member |
Explanation: Notice in Genesis three, after the curse that the ground was cursed due to God's curse. This doesn't make much sense. According to your interpretation of day 2 language, the ground had always required tilling in order for seeds to sprout. It just wasn't necessary for Adam to do any tilling. Surely you are not saying that Adam was cursed on day 2 or 3. He didn't even exist yet.Under a government which imprisons any unjustly, the true place for a just man is also in prison. Thoreau: Civil Disobedience (1846) The apathy of the people is enough to make every statue leap from its pedestal and hasten the resurrection of the dead. William Lloyd Garrison
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New Cat's Eye Inactive Member |
You read it and go figure. Its an account of an event, why wouldn't there be some kind of sequence?
It's not sequential in all aspects that Genesis one is. No, not exactly, but it does have adverbs like "then" that imply some sort of sequence:
quote: Going figuring would yield that the man was formed after the streams came up.
Ask Percy That was his point in the message link. No? Did you read the Percy message link? To me, his point was that Gen 1 list some events in a different order than Gen 2 does, so they can't both be right.
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PaulK Member Posts: 17919 Joined: Member Rating: 6.7
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quote: As others have pointed out, this seems to be a clear misrepresentation. Genesis 2:5 seems to claim that there were no humans, and leads into their creation, so it is a bit implausible to suggest that it refers to a situation AFTER humans were created. And wouldn't the existence of the garden itself (planted in verses 2:8-9) contradict the idea that there were no plants growing ? This seems to be a clear case where the verses are IN sequence. No plants because there is no rain and no humans to look after the plants. (2:5)God arranges a substitute for rain. (2:6) God creates a man to look after the plants. (2:7) God plants a garden. (2:8-9) God sends the man to look after the garden. (2:15) The sequence makes perfect sense as written. On what basis should we assume that it is not sequential ?
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jar Member (Idle past 99 days) Posts: 34140 From: Texas!! Joined: |
AI have read it and will even post it for you to read.
quote: Order and sequence. There are no plants because there is no rain and no gardener. Streams water the earth. God creates man from dust. Plants grow. Animals are created. Woman is created by cloning. That is the order and sequence of events in Genesis 2. Nothing there about earth being cursed.Anyone so limited that they can only spell a word one way is severely handicapped!
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Trixie Member (Idle past 3966 days) Posts: 1011 From: Edinburgh Joined: |
I've checked the link you provided to Percy's post and, as Catholic Scientists says, his point was that the order of creation given in Genesis 1 is different from the order given in Genesis 2.
The fact that both are supposedly sequential is in the surrouding text giving reasons for the creation of man and animals.
Genesis 1KJV 24And God said, Let the earth bring forth the living creature after his kind, cattle, and creeping thing, and beast of the earth after his kind: and it was so. 25And God made the beast of the earth after his kind, and cattle after their kind, and every thing that creepeth upon the earth after his kind: and God saw that it was good. 26And God said, Let us make man in our image, after our likeness: and let them have dominion over the fish of the sea, and over the fowl of the air, and over the cattle, and over all the earth, and over every creeping thing that creepeth upon the earth. 27So God created man in his own image, in the image of God created he him; male and female created he them. So right there God made man AFTER he made animals to rule over the already created animals.
Genesis 2 KJV 15And the LORD God took the man, and put him into the garden of Eden to dress it and to keep it. 16And the LORD God commanded the man, saying, Of every tree of the garden thou mayest freely eat: 17But of the tree of the knowledge of good and evil, thou shalt not eat of it: for in the day that thou eatest thereof thou shalt surely die. 18And the LORD God said, It is not good that the man should be alone; I will make him an help meet for him. 19And out of the ground the LORD God formed every beast of the field, and every fowl of the air; and brought them unto Adam to see what he would call them: and whatsoever Adam called every living creature, that was the name thereof. 20And Adam gave names to all cattle, and to the fowl of the air, and to every beast of the field; but for Adam there was not found an help meet for him. And here we can see that man was created first and the animals were created so he wasn't alone. By giving this reason in Genesis 2, the text must be sequential. If the animals were created because man was alone and it wasn't good for him to be alone, that explicitly states that the order is man then animals. Yet in Genesis 1 the animals were already there when man was created, so he couldn't have been alone and needing animals. That's the contradiction that Percy was highlighting in his post. The reasoning given in the two chapters shows that the creation order of man and animals in each chapter is sequential, otherwise the reasoning stated makes no sense at all. So there's my evidence for this part of the two accounts being sequential - the language used in the accounts. What evidence do you have that they're not sequential?
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Blue Jay Member (Idle past 2957 days) Posts: 2843 From: You couldn't pronounce it with your mouthparts Joined: |
Hi, Trixie.
There is a little grammatical glitch involved in all of this, though. The King James Version of Gen 2:19 (which you cited) says this:
quote: However, in the New International Version, it says this:
quote: The KJV's past tense is changed into the past perfect tense in the NIV. The use of past perfect specifically means that this element is being introduced out of chronological sequence: it happened before this point in the narrative, but not at this point. I can't speak to the correctness of using one tense or the other, but there is at least a way to weasel out here. Then, in verse 20, it says this:
quote: So, when I read the whole part about the creation of animals and man, to me it sounds more like it's saying this:
"Adam needed a helper, and God was going to make one. There were animals, which God had made before, and Adam gave them all names, but none of them were a suitable helper for Adam. So, God made a woman to be Adam's helper." From this, I don't know that there's much of a case for the two chapters contradicting one another in terms of the sequence of events. Of course, that hinges on whether or not the NIV's use of past perfect tense was justified.-Bluejay (a.k.a. Mantis, Thylacosmilus) Darwin loves you.
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PaulK Member Posts: 17919 Joined: Member Rating: 6.7
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I believe that this is an example of the NIV being guided by apologetic concerns rather than the text.
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Trixie Member (Idle past 3966 days) Posts: 1011 From: Edinburgh Joined: |
I have to agree with you, PaulK. The problem we have here is that the KJV and the NIV seem to be saying different things. It might be a small change grammatically, but it makes a huge difference to the meaning.
This has some unfortunate implications for biblical inerrancy - which version is right?
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Theodoric Member Posts: 9489 From: Northwest, WI, USA Joined: Member Rating: 6.3 |
This has some unfortunate implications for biblical inerrancy - which version is right?
Since Forever thinks inerrancy is so important I guess he should answer.Facts don't lie or have an agenda. Facts are just facts
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PaulK Member Posts: 17919 Joined: Member Rating: 6.7 |
By my understanding the NIV is not the most reliable of translations because of issues like this. The KJV isn't that great either for a number of reasons (one of which is that the language is a little archaic now). I usually start with the New American Standard Bible which I have been told is one of the more accurate translations.
In the NASB Genesis 2:19 says this:
19 Out of the ground the LORD God formed every beast of the field and every bird of the sky, and brought them to the man to see what he would call them; and whatever the man called a living creature, that was its name.
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jar Member (Idle past 99 days) Posts: 34140 From: Texas!! Joined: |
Somewhat off topic but it's important to remember that there were three major driving forces for the KJV, that it would be politically correct, not too offensive to the Roman Catholics and that it affirm the Divine Right of Kings.
Anyone so limited that they can only spell a word one way is severely handicapped!
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