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Author Topic:   How was Christ's tomb paid for?
Otto Tellick
Member (Idle past 1357 days)
Posts: 288
From: PA, USA
Joined: 02-17-2008


Message 1 of 13 (694999)
04-01-2013 4:19 AM


The logistics of funeral arrangements, particularly those that involve a "permanent" place of interment, are neither simple nor inexpensive. Based on available archeological evidence from about 2000 years ago, it would seem that stone enclosures for dead bodies were the sort of thing reserved to emperors, well-placed bureaucrats, highly successful merchants and clergy, and possibly some high-ranking military leaders.

Among common people of that period, it's far more likely that families would commit their dear departed to a simple covering of loose stones and/or dirt, if not to the long-established tradition of leaving bodies exposed to the elements (presumably at some distance from the habitations of the living, and presumably with duly respectful ceremony citing the "purifying fire" of the sun). It would seem that the Romans, when dealing with the remains of those punished by crucifixion, essentially adopted the latter practice, but presumably with less ceremony.

Given the general descriptions ascribed to Jesus and his followers regarding economic status and monetary resources, it seems incongruous that a fully enclosed tomb, with a substantial stone barrier to close it up, would be readily available for his body immediately after his crucifixion. That would have involved a substantial amount of planning, at the very least, not to mention a rather substantial investment of effort and resources (or quite a large quantity of coins).

So, leaving aside all the supernatural claims surrounding the death of Jesus, what is there to lend any credence at all to the inescapably non-supernatural assertion that such a tomb was available? How was that worked out?

I haven't tried looking up anything myself on this yet - I'm wondering if anyone has addressed the question... Has it already been resolved to everyone's satisfaction?

(I don't know whether this would go under "Bible accuracy/inerrancy" or under "Faith and belief". I defer to moderators in determining the appropriate place.)


autotelic adj. (of an entity or event) having within itself the purpose of its existence or happening.

Replies to this message:
 Message 4 by AZPaul3, posted 04-01-2013 4:40 PM Otto Tellick has not yet responded
 Message 5 by Faith, posted 04-01-2013 10:00 PM Otto Tellick has responded
 Message 6 by NoNukes, posted 04-02-2013 1:22 AM Otto Tellick has not yet responded

  
Otto Tellick
Member (Idle past 1357 days)
Posts: 288
From: PA, USA
Joined: 02-17-2008


(2)
Message 7 of 13 (695035)
04-02-2013 3:22 AM
Reply to: Message 5 by Faith
04-01-2013 10:00 PM


Thank you.
I have been hereby been schooled. I'm grateful for the info. (I do appreciate becoming less ignorant.)

autotelic adj. (of an entity or event) having within itself the purpose of its existence or happening.

This message is a reply to:
 Message 5 by Faith, posted 04-01-2013 10:00 PM Faith has not yet responded

  
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