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Author | Topic: Are religions manmade and natural or supernaturally based? | |||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||
Dr Adequate Member (Idle past 310 days) Posts: 16113 Joined:
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There's one terrific piece of evidence we often overlook, and that is that it was WOMEN who first discovered the empty tomb and it was a woman who first saw the risen Jesus Himself. We think nothing of it in our time but in those days to give women any responsibility for such an important role as witnessing the resurrection of Christ was a radical contradiction to the prevailing attitude toward women. That Jesus Himlself, God Himself, entrusted mere women with this revelation must have been quite an eyeopener to the male disciples who accepted the cultural attitude that women could not even testify in court (or only under some special circumstances, sorry I'm not up on all that.) And this also has the wonderful effect of validating the scriptures as honest witness reports, since no Jew in his right mind would ever make up such a tale as that women were entrusted with this knowledge before the men knew it. It's also no doubt a big part of the reason why Thomas couldn't believe the reports he'd heard -- they came first of all from women. Anyway, you can be sure none of the writers of the gospels would have made up such a thing. By the same reasoning, the Gospel of Mary Magdalane is, if anything, even more credible than the account of the resurrection, and we should all immediately become Gnostics. After all, it says that Jesus loved Mary even more than he loved the male disciples, and that he confided to her privately important teachings that he wouldn't tell the Apostles in public --- and given the lowly status of women at the time the Gospel of Mary was composed, no-one would have made that up. Therefore, the Gospel of Mary and all its contents must be true. Logic! Well, what passes for logic round here, anyway.
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Dr Adequate Member (Idle past 310 days) Posts: 16113 Joined: |
The Gospel of Mary Magdalene is a perfect example of a bogus writing .... And yet your reasoning in support of the canonical gospels would prove it genuine, and indeed more likely to be genuine than they are. Which suggests that there's something wrong with your reasoning.
It is not a narrative .... 'Tis.
... the exact sort of thing the Bible is not. But only because the Bible was compiled by people ignorant of your criterion of whether a book is genuine.
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Dr Adequate Member (Idle past 310 days) Posts: 16113 Joined: |
It is not a narrative. It is a bogus made-up dialogue putting words in the mouths of Biblical personalities they would never say. It's a narrative. It includes Jesus making long speeches, but then so do the canonical Gospels --- the Sermon on the Mount comes to mind. As to whether they'd have said it, that depends on whether the Gospel of Mary is accurate, let's not do circular reasoning here.
It puts Mary in a position not normally given to women in Jewish culture based on scripture's attitude to women, isn't that obvious? And that's the point. According to your reasoning, Faith, according to your reasoning, that means that it must be true because no-one would have made it up. Look, this is simple a fortiori reasoning. Let's go over it again. You say that the canonical gospels must be true, because no-one would have invented a story which gives a significant role to women. But here we have the Gospel of Mary, which gives an even more significant role to a woman --- indeed, to the same woman. It says that Jesus favored her above the male disciples, over the Twelve Apostles themselves. This leaves you with two choices: (1) You can follow your own reasoning, and say that no-one would have invented the Gospel of Mary which elevates a woman above all the male disciples put together. In which case the Gospel of Mary is true and we should all believe a bunch of Gnostic nonsense. (2) You can reject your own reasoning, and admit that the rather less prominent part played in the canonical gospels by women is not in fact good evidence for the truth of the canonical gospels.
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Dr Adequate Member (Idle past 310 days) Posts: 16113 Joined: |
Or I can continue to say that the fact that women were given such prominence specifically in the witnessing and reporting of Christ's resurrection, which no Jew could have made up, is evidence for the truthfulness of the gospels, and all the gnostic gospels are is bogus revisionist usurpers and copycats. You can say that, but that would be incredibly stupid. Oh for fuck's sake. You wish to argue that THE SAME THING is an argument for the truth of the canonical gospels, and that THE SAME THING should be ignored as an argument for the truth of the Gnostic gospels. I have literally laid my head down upon my keyboard and wept with laughter, with mirth and despair mingled.
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Dr Adequate Member (Idle past 310 days) Posts: 16113 Joined: |
It isn't the same thing. Yes it is.
The gnostic gospels are discredited from many angles before we even get to Mary Magdalene. * sigh * But look, Faith, you said that no-one would make up a story giving a such a prominent place to women. But the Gospel of Mary gives an even more prominent place to women. And the Gospel of Mary is, by your own admission, made up. Therefore, people would make up a gospel in which women play a prominent role. We know that they would because they did. So you can't argue for the truth of the canonical gospels on the basis that no person would do such a thing, because you know that such a thing was in fact done by a person. --- By analogy, suppose Obama was accused of illegally bugging his political opponents, and I argued against it on the grounds that "no American President would do such a thing". Then all you would have to do would be to whisper "Nixon. Watergate." I can't argue that no American President would do such a thing when we know perfectly well that an American President did. This would leave open the question of whether Obama did it too, but it does completely destroy the particular argument I used. --- In general, if an argument rests on saying "This thing could not occur", then we can destroy the argument by pointing to a case in which it occurred. This is really not a difficult concept, and I don't see why I have had to spell it out at such great length.
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Dr Adequate Member (Idle past 310 days) Posts: 16113 Joined: |
I don't get why this is such a big logical thing to you. No, you don't. You really don't. You don't. That much is clear.
By your logic evidence for an authentic writing can be easily discredited by a copycat bogus writing. No. Absolutely not. As you say, you do not understand my reasoning. Try reading it again.
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Dr Adequate Member (Idle past 310 days) Posts: 16113 Joined:
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ICANT writes: But the only truthful answer is "We don't Know what existed at T=0". ICANT writes: It had to be a supernatural power I'm sure the two of you have a lot to discuss. Let us know when you reach a consensus.
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Dr Adequate Member (Idle past 310 days) Posts: 16113 Joined: |
Sure, but to what end? There is essentially no serious scholar today that would say Jesus did not exist, which I hope you're not trying to insinuate here. My point in using the roman invasion of Gaul is in the literary evidence category. Well, suppose that we had only literary evidence for the invasion of Gaul, and no physical evidence at all. Now suppose that the literary evidence described Caesar and his armies conquering Gaul mounted on flying elephants. Would you give this account any credence?
I think that's great! I love history. But as I have already stated, always needing what we would call "hard evidence" before making conclusions is an assumption about epistemology. The idea that if we believed every crazy story we heard we'd end up believing all sorts of dumb nonsense is hardly an "assumption".
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Dr Adequate Member (Idle past 310 days) Posts: 16113 Joined: |
Well there's no need to brag.
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Dr Adequate Member (Idle past 310 days) Posts: 16113 Joined: |
If I understand what you are saying it is that the amount of useable energy will decrease as entropy takes it course during duration. At a point in the future all of the useable energy will be turned into un-useable energy at which time the universe will be dead. Which is the reason that the universe requires a beginning to exist as it could not be infinite as the universe would already have reached the point of death. If you will show your working, I will point out where the error is.
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