Jesus the rabbi ?

A book I am reading states that Jesus is " usually addressed as "rabbi" in the gospels and then goes on to give several examples including Mark 9.5,10.51,11.21,14.45

Sorry about the above I don't know what went wrong ,I'm new at this.The message SHOULD have gone on to say that in another book I'm reading it states that the term "rabbi" was not used until after the destruction of the Jerusalem Temple 70C.E..Itstruck me that if JC was referred to as "rabbi'{"master"} in Mark it would add support toM ark being written post70.Anyone csre to comment?Thanks------------------

The book that stated that JC is "usually addressed as rabbi" is "The 2 Faces of Jesus" by Paul Barnett ,Bishop of North Sydney.I can't cite publication details because the first 30 odd pages were missing.My RSV has footnotes for the text of Mark 'as above,that says "master" is "rabbi".The book that states that the term "rabbi" was first used after 70C.E. is Harper Collins Dictionary of Religion Ed.John Z Smith London 1996.The statement is made under the entry "rabbi" p.874.I am curious if ,in fact this is true.I looked up the Jewish Encyclopaedia online but couldn't find anything relevant.It strikes me that this seems similar to JC and the synagogues situation where gospel writers have him in and of buildings that ,most probably,did not exist in Palestine c.30C.E..But I welcome comment from better informed persons.Thanks.

Thanks for the reference to the Catholic Enc..Like a lot of the reading I do the deeper I go the more muddy the waters get.I couldn't link to Enc.Judaica {I'll try again sometime but ,on closer inspection of the Jewish Encyclopaedia ,under "rabbi" ,it had this to say:"Shehia's[sp?]statement shows clearly that at the time of Jesus Christ there were no titles and Gratz[gesh iv 431]regards as anachronisms the title "rabbi" as given in the gospels to John the Baptist and Jesus Christ.....".previously rhe entry said that it {"rabbi"was first used of R.Gamaliel the Elder.I thimk he is c.30 isn't he?

I started this thread because it seemed to me that JC being termed "rabbi" in the gospels was anachronistic,and knowing nothing of 1st.century Judaism requested more information.Since then I have read Hyam Macccoby's The Mythmaker".He states {p.21 that the Pharisees were known as sages pre70ce and were only termed "rabbis" later.Geza Vermes in"The Changing Faces of Jesus" says {p.25} that"it is questionable whether the term "rabbi" in the specialized meaning was current in the early decades of the 1st. century ce..The great Jewish masters who lived in the age of Jesus Christ,Hillel,Shammai,Gamaliel,are all called "elders" not "rabbis'. I suspect anachronism !

Thank you ConsequentAthiest.I shall take some time to digest this article.At first glance it seems to reinforce my suspicion that the term is an anachronism .I must say that I attach little value to the thoughts of Herschel Shanks since I read his comments re Finkelstein,and his obdurance re the alleged "James Ossuary".

Hi,I,d like to reopen the speculation that the term "rabbi" being applied to Jesus is an anachronism.CA posted that "it was only during the tannaitic period ,in the generation after Hillel,that it [rabbi] was employed as a title for sages.." [from the Encyclopaedia Judaica ,I think.]I know this is revealing my learner status ,but I had never come across the term "tannaitic" before and I'm wondering just what date this period begins.Does it start AFTER 70c.e.?If so does this support the idea that "Jesus as rabbi" is an anachronism?

Thank CA,your conclusion seems unavoidable.But I learned something and will continue to pursue the topic generally.