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Author | Topic: Matthew 12:40 Using Common Idiomatic Language? | |||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||
rstrats Member (Idle past 93 days) Posts: 140 Joined: |
Since it has again been awhile, someone new looking in who thinks that the crucifixion took place on the 6th day of the week, and who tries to get around Matthew 12:40 by saying that it is using common Jewish idiomatic/figure of speech/colloquial language may know of some writing as requested in the OP.
Edited by rstrats, : No reason given.
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kbertsche Member (Idle past 2524 days) Posts: 1427 From: San Jose, CA, USA Joined: |
rstrats writes:
I gave you an example in post #3 of this thread, from the OT, suggesting that "three days and three nights" was a Hebrew idiom for "three days ago". Your comment in post #4 suggests that you read my post too quickly and missed the point. Sorry, I misread you comment. When I said that I'd not seen even one example, I was referring to an example where a daytime or a night time was forecast to be involved with an event when no part of the daytime or no part of the night time could have occurred."Science without religion is lame, religion without science is blind." — Albert Einstein I am very astonished that the scientific picture of the real world around me is very deficient. It gives us a lot of factual information, puts all of our experience in a magnificently consistent order, but it is ghastly silent about all and sundry that is really near to our heart, that really matters to us. It cannot tell us a word about red and blue, bitter and sweet, physical pain and physical delight; it knows nothing of beautiful and ugly, good or bad, God and eternity. Science sometimes pretends to answer questions in these domains, but the answers are very often so silly that we are not inclined to take them seriously. — Erwin Schroedinger
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PaulK Member Posts: 18125 Joined: Member Rating: 6.1 |
You claimed to have an example. Your claim was refuted.
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kbertsche Member (Idle past 2524 days) Posts: 1427 From: San Jose, CA, USA Joined: |
PaulK writes:
You claimed to have an example. Your claim was refuted. My example was 1 Sam 30:11-15, which suggests that "three days and three nights" was a Hebrew idiom for "three days ago". How, when, and where was this claim "refuted"?? Edited by kbertsche, : No reason given. Edited by kbertsche, : Clarification"Science without religion is lame, religion without science is blind." — Albert Einstein I am very astonished that the scientific picture of the real world around me is very deficient. It gives us a lot of factual information, puts all of our experience in a magnificently consistent order, but it is ghastly silent about all and sundry that is really near to our heart, that really matters to us. It cannot tell us a word about red and blue, bitter and sweet, physical pain and physical delight; it knows nothing of beautiful and ugly, good or bad, God and eternity. Science sometimes pretends to answer questions in these domains, but the answers are very often so silly that we are not inclined to take them seriously. — Erwin Schroedinger
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PaulK Member Posts: 18125 Joined: Member Rating: 6.1 |
In this thread, of course.
E.g Message 12 Where there is a sensible literal reading,there is no reason to assume that it is an idiom.
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rstrats Member (Idle past 93 days) Posts: 140 Joined: |
kbertsche,
re: "I gave you an example in post #3 of this thread, from the OT, suggesting that 'three days and three nights' was a Hebrew idiom for 'three days ago'". Please explain how that shows an example where a daytime or a night time was said to be involved with an event when no part of the daytime or no part of the night time could have occurred. Edited by rstrats, : No reason given.
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kbertsche Member (Idle past 2524 days) Posts: 1427 From: San Jose, CA, USA Joined: |
PaulK writes:
I see. So if you write that "the sun rose at 7 AM this morning", I am to assume that you actually believe that the sun moves around the earth. There is no reason to assume that you are using an idiom, since there is a sensible literal reading. Where there is a sensible literal reading,there is no reason to assume that it is an idiom. Sorry, but this is not how human language works. It doesn't follow such strict, simplistic rules of interpretation as you seem to think."Science without religion is lame, religion without science is blind." — Albert Einstein I am very astonished that the scientific picture of the real world around me is very deficient. It gives us a lot of factual information, puts all of our experience in a magnificently consistent order, but it is ghastly silent about all and sundry that is really near to our heart, that really matters to us. It cannot tell us a word about red and blue, bitter and sweet, physical pain and physical delight; it knows nothing of beautiful and ugly, good or bad, God and eternity. Science sometimes pretends to answer questions in these domains, but the answers are very often so silly that we are not inclined to take them seriously. — Erwin Schroedinger
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PaulK Member Posts: 18125 Joined: Member Rating: 6.1 |
quote: Not at all, since it is common knowledge that the rising of the sun is due to the rotation of the Earth you have a sensible reason for thinking that it is an idiom.
quote: It's not a question of how language works it is a question of evidence. So, instead of sneering why don't you actually produce some evidence that the usage is idiomatic? All these silly and baseless sneers hardly make for a valid argument - but it seems to be all you have, as the history of the thread shows,
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NoNukes Inactive Member |
Not at all, since it is common knowledge that the rising of the sun is due to the rotation of the Earth you have a sensible reason for thinking that it is an idiom. Let's take this one step further, there is plenty of evidence that folks who know the facts about the rising of the sun refer to "sunrise" and the "sun rising". However, there is not a single example other than the one in question, of people referring to a period between Friday afternoon and Sunday morning as three days and three nights. In the Bible or anywhere else. So there is neither evidence or reason to believe the idiom explanation. The facts are that the Bible does not name the day Jesus died. The point to this discussion is not to defend the Bible but to defend the traditional Good Friday and Easter Sunday. Edited by NoNukes, : No reason given. Edited by NoNukes, : No reason given. Under a government which imprisons any unjustly, the true place for a just man is also in prison. Thoreau: Civil Disobedience (1846) I was thinking as long as I have my hands up they’re not going to shoot me. This is what I’m thinking they’re not going to shoot me. Wow, was I wrong. -- Charles Kinsey We got a thousand points of light for the homeless man. We've got a kinder, gentler, machine gun hand. Neil Young, Rockin' in the Free World. Worrying about the "browning of America" is not racism. -- Faith I hate you all, you hate me -- Faith
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kbertsche Member (Idle past 2524 days) Posts: 1427 From: San Jose, CA, USA Joined: |
NoNukes writes:
How can you be so positive that not a single example exists in the Bible or anywhere else? Where is your evidence for this claim? Have you read all of the extant Greco-Roman and Semitic literature? However, there is not a single example other than the one in question, of people referring to a period between Friday afternoon and Sunday morning as three days and three nights. In the Bible or anywhere else. So there is neither evidence or reason to believe the idiom explanation."Science without religion is lame, religion without science is blind." — Albert Einstein I am very astonished that the scientific picture of the real world around me is very deficient. It gives us a lot of factual information, puts all of our experience in a magnificently consistent order, but it is ghastly silent about all and sundry that is really near to our heart, that really matters to us. It cannot tell us a word about red and blue, bitter and sweet, physical pain and physical delight; it knows nothing of beautiful and ugly, good or bad, God and eternity. Science sometimes pretends to answer questions in these domains, but the answers are very often so silly that we are not inclined to take them seriously. — Erwin Schroedinger
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New Cat's Eye Inactive Member |
My example was 1 Sam 30:11-15, which suggests that "three days and three nights" was a Hebrew idiom for "three days ago". How, when, and where was this claim "refuted"?? Three days ago from Sunday is Thursday not Friday. Good Friday is two days ago from Easter Sunday not three days ago.
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kbertsche Member (Idle past 2524 days) Posts: 1427 From: San Jose, CA, USA Joined: |
NewCatsEye writes:
Easter Sunday is the third day from Good Friday (cf. Lk 13:32). Three days ago from Sunday is Thursday not Friday. Good Friday is two days ago from Easter Sunday not three days ago.
"Science without religion is lame, religion without science is blind." — Albert Einstein I am very astonished that the scientific picture of the real world around me is very deficient. It gives us a lot of factual information, puts all of our experience in a magnificently consistent order, but it is ghastly silent about all and sundry that is really near to our heart, that really matters to us. It cannot tell us a word about red and blue, bitter and sweet, physical pain and physical delight; it knows nothing of beautiful and ugly, good or bad, God and eternity. Science sometimes pretends to answer questions in these domains, but the answers are very often so silly that we are not inclined to take them seriously. — Erwin Schroedinger
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rstrats Member (Idle past 93 days) Posts: 140 Joined: |
kbertsche,
re: "Easter Sunday is the third day from Good Friday (cf. Lk 13:32)." What would the first day from Good Friday be? BTW, you have a question directed to you in post #51.
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New Cat's Eye Inactive Member |
NewCatsEye writes:
Easter Sunday is the third day from Good Friday (cf. Lk 13:32). Three days ago from Sunday is Thursday not Friday.Good Friday is two days ago from Easter Sunday not three days ago. So then, Saturday is the second day from Good Friday and Good Friday is the first day from Good Friday? Friday is the first day from Friday? No, that don't make sense.
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kbertsche Member (Idle past 2524 days) Posts: 1427 From: San Jose, CA, USA Joined:
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rstrats writes:
If you read Lk 13:32, you should be able to figure out for yourself what the "first day" would have been according to first century Hebrew idiom.
kbertsche,re: "Easter Sunday is the third day from Good Friday (cf. Lk 13:32)." What would the first day from Good Friday be? BTW, you have a question directed to you in post #51.
I haven't been able to find a passage which exactly answers your question in post #51. But Lk 13:32 shows how the first century Hebrews counted: what we would call "two days away" they called "the third day". The New Testament alternately says that Jesus was raised "on the third day" or was in the tomb "three days" or (in one passage) "three days and three nights". It seems that all of these phrases were used synonymously for the same thing, which is spelled out in Lk 13:32."Science without religion is lame, religion without science is blind." — Albert Einstein I am very astonished that the scientific picture of the real world around me is very deficient. It gives us a lot of factual information, puts all of our experience in a magnificently consistent order, but it is ghastly silent about all and sundry that is really near to our heart, that really matters to us. It cannot tell us a word about red and blue, bitter and sweet, physical pain and physical delight; it knows nothing of beautiful and ugly, good or bad, God and eternity. Science sometimes pretends to answer questions in these domains, but the answers are very often so silly that we are not inclined to take them seriously. — Erwin Schroedinger
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