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Author Topic:   Matthew 12:40 Using Common Idiomatic Language?
rstrats
Member
Posts: 123
Joined: 04-08-2004


Message 151 of 157 (848597)
02-11-2019 4:47 PM
Reply to: Message 149 by candle2
02-11-2019 10:35 AM


cabdle2,
re: "The very essence of your question concerns 'time'."

Actually, the essence concerns the commonality of forecasting or saying that a daytime or a night time would be involved with an event when no part of a daytime or no part of a night time could have been.

re: "To assume that 3 days & 3 nights is equal to 1 day and 2 nights takes a leap of faith.

Indeed.

re: "I would gladly go out of my way to find examples (assuming there are any), if you show me why you or anyone else refuse to believe what Matthew so clearly stated"

I don't know about anyone else, but I see no reason to disbelieve Matthew's account.


This message is a reply to:
 Message 149 by candle2, posted 02-11-2019 10:35 AM candle2 has responded

Replies to this message:
 Message 152 by candle2, posted 02-11-2019 5:56 PM rstrats has responded

  
candle2
Member
Posts: 65
Joined: 12-31-2018


Message 152 of 157 (848602)
02-11-2019 5:56 PM
Reply to: Message 151 by rstrats
02-11-2019 4:47 PM


The term "three days and three night" is not ambiguous.

Matthew could not have been any clearer. There is no better or more concise way to say "three days and three nights" than to say "three days and three nights."

To break one of the 10Commandments is the same as breaking them all. The attack on the 7th day Sabbath is the easiest one for Satan to attack.


This message is a reply to:
 Message 151 by rstrats, posted 02-11-2019 4:47 PM rstrats has responded

Replies to this message:
 Message 153 by rstrats, posted 02-11-2019 6:33 PM candle2 has responded

    
rstrats
Member
Posts: 123
Joined: 04-08-2004


Message 153 of 157 (848603)
02-11-2019 6:33 PM
Reply to: Message 152 by candle2
02-11-2019 5:56 PM


candle2,

I'm afraid I don't see what your comments have to do with this topic. I wonder if you might explain why you think that they do?

Edited by rstrats, : No reason given.


This message is a reply to:
 Message 152 by candle2, posted 02-11-2019 5:56 PM candle2 has responded

Replies to this message:
 Message 154 by candle2, posted 02-12-2019 6:40 AM rstrats has responded

  
candle2
Member
Posts: 65
Joined: 12-31-2018


Message 154 of 157 (848611)
02-12-2019 6:40 AM
Reply to: Message 153 by rstrats
02-11-2019 6:33 PM


In your original post you asked for "other instances" where a period of one day and three nights was in JIL commonly referred to as "3 days & 3 nights

My point is that you don't even have one instance, certainly not Matthew 12:39-40.

In any event, if you are seeking examples of this in JIL, you must also look for examples of it in the Hebrew language in use at the time of Jonah

After all, Jesus and Jonah were dead for the same amount of time.

But, this is your post and your question, and I respect that.


This message is a reply to:
 Message 153 by rstrats, posted 02-11-2019 6:33 PM rstrats has responded

Replies to this message:
 Message 155 by rstrats, posted 02-12-2019 7:55 AM candle2 has responded

    
rstrats
Member
Posts: 123
Joined: 04-08-2004


Message 155 of 157 (848617)
02-12-2019 7:55 AM
Reply to: Message 154 by candle2
02-12-2019 6:40 AM


candle2,
re: "In your original post you asked for 'other instances' where a period of one day and three nights was in JIL commonly referred to as '3 days & 3 nights"

I don't see where I asked that. What do you have in mind?


This message is a reply to:
 Message 154 by candle2, posted 02-12-2019 6:40 AM candle2 has responded

Replies to this message:
 Message 156 by candle2, posted 06-24-2019 12:05 PM rstrats has responded

  
candle2
Member
Posts: 65
Joined: 12-31-2018


Message 156 of 157 (855872)
06-24-2019 12:05 PM
Reply to: Message 155 by rstrats
02-12-2019 7:55 AM


I would like to know if anyone is aware of instances in which an individual used "common" sense language to express "3 days & 3 nights," when this is exactly what that individual meant.

No one, not even an idiot, would use the phrase "3 days & 3 nights" when referring to 36 hours, or one day and two nights.


This message is a reply to:
 Message 155 by rstrats, posted 02-12-2019 7:55 AM rstrats has responded

Replies to this message:
 Message 157 by rstrats, posted 06-24-2019 1:36 PM candle2 has not yet responded

    
rstrats
Member
Posts: 123
Joined: 04-08-2004


Message 157 of 157 (855877)
06-24-2019 1:36 PM
Reply to: Message 156 by candle2
06-24-2019 12:05 PM


candle2,

You say that you "would like to know if anyone is aware of instances in which an individual used 'common' sense language to express '3 days & 3 nights,' when this is exactly what that individual meant."
I'm afraid I don't understand what you're saying. I wonder if you might word it differently?

BTW, you have a question directed to you in post #153.

Edited by rstrats, : No reason given.


This message is a reply to:
 Message 156 by candle2, posted 06-24-2019 12:05 PM candle2 has not yet responded

  
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