Adminnemooseus,
re: How about quoting Matthew 12:14 (the context around it might also be good)...
I’m afraid I don’t see what Matthew 12:14 has to do with my question regarding documentation that shows that the phrase; 3 days AND 3 nights, was a unique first century idiom of Hebrew/Aramaic/Greek which could mean something different than what the phrase means in English?
re: ...and mentioning a bit of this previous discussion?
For the purpose of this topic, I am only interested in what I asked for in the OP.